Yes, Pennsylvania had slaves during the colonial period but gradually abolished slavery in a series of legislative actions, eventually passing the Act for the Gradual Abolition of Slavery in 1780 which freed individuals born into slavery after its enactment.
The main clauses of the Emancipation Act of 1833 included the abolition of slavery throughout the British Empire, the granting of freedom to slaves, and the establishment of a system of apprenticeship to gradually transition former slaves to a state of full freedom. Additionally, the act provided for compensation to slave owners for their financial losses resulting from the emancipation of their slaves.
Pennsylvania did have slaves at one point. Most of them worked in plantations in southern PA like in rural areas near Lancaster, York, Lebanon, Gettysburg, and Chambersburg. The slaves in PA did not do the same work as what slaves in Virginia or South Carolina did. The slaves probably picked corn or wheat in PA.
Granting freedom to slaves means legally recognizing them as free individuals, releasing them from bondage, and allowing them to exercise their rights and live independently without being subjected to forced labor.
The Fugitive Slave Act of 1850 required people in all states to help slaveowners catch their runaway slaves by allowing for the arrest and return of fugitive slaves to their owners, even in free states. It also imposed penalties on those who aided or harbored fugitive slaves, making it a crime to assist escaped slaves.
Yes it did.
Virginia
These were ex-slaves. At first, they just performed fatigues for the Northern units. But gradually they were allowed into uniform and formed black regiments and brigades.
William Paterson believed that slaves could vote for taxes paid by state but only 3/5 of the slaves should be counted for determining but not for determining representation in the national legislature. :)
they demeanded the immediate imancipation of slaves
it was a chance for the slaves to become catholics.
The Harpers Ferry raid had a goal to get gun to arm slaves with.
Slaves could not own property or vote. They were only able to work for free for their owners, making them slaves.
People have been making others their slaves since the beginning of humanity and still do.
Possibly, but not that I am aware of. In Europe, feudalism and serfdom were dying out. Expanding European powers needed labor, especially for their new overseas colonies. As the number of white slaves diminished, black slaves gradually took their place, and it was believed that black people had been placed on earth by God to be slaves for white people. The Muslims practiced slavery at this time and earlier, and they even sold African slaves to the Europeans. The Spanish Inquisition may have been a factor, but based on my knowledge I doubt it.
he wanted to help slaves by making them join his plan . he will use violence.
the fugitive slave law