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How were the spanish and portuguese colonies similar in the 1540's?
In the 1540s, both Spanish and Portuguese colonies in the Americas were focused on exploiting indigenous populations for labor and resources. They followed a model of colonization that involved establishing plantations and extracting wealth from the land. Both empires also sought to spread Christianity and convert the local populations to Catholicism.
What was similar relations between Spaniards and the dutch?
Both the Spanish and the Dutch had colonial empires during the Age of Exploration, with conflicts arising due to competition for resources and trade routes. Additionally, both empires were heavily involved in the global slave trade. The Dutch War of Independence against Spain in the late 16th century further strained relations between the two powers.
What is the Portuguese culture?
Portuguese culture, mirrors the Spanish culture. Since Portugal and Spain, are both on the Iberian Peninsula, the ancient Roman province of Hispania and later, Lusitania specifically for Portugal. Simply look at Portugal and Spain, the entire Iberian Peninsula looks one big country. Consequently, when dealing with wars, empires and the overall history, Portugal share the exact same history as Spain. It was a Roman province, and it it was conquered by the Muslim Moors. The later, drive back out during the Reconquista in which Portugal and Spain became back under European rule. Football (soccer), is as popular of a Portuguese sport as it is in Spain or Mexico. Like Portugal's eastern neighbor, bullrunning and bullfighting are also popular in the streets of Portugal as they are in Spain. Although Portuguese people don't speak Spanish, but their language bears much, much resemblance and intelligability with Spanish. They speak the Portuguese langauge, and it like Spanish, it originated from the Latin language and belongs to the Italic family (Romance). In fact the Portuguese langauge itself has Galician origins, which is in Spain. Portuguese people, also celebrate beach holidays and village holidays of their own. Like Spain and Italy, Portugal is also known for its bars, winery and vineyards. Portuguese people, again; they much like their eastern Spanish neighbors. They are proud, happy and crazy people enjoying life. Which explains why Portuguese and Spanish people love bullfighting.
What role did the Portuguese play in European exploration?
The Portuguese played probably the same role as all of the other European empires. The Portuguese, didn't attain as much territory as the Spanish Empire. Because Spain and Portugal had a dispute over who would own who, so the two empires signed the Treaty of Tordesillas and this divded Spain and Portugal's ownage of South America into a "east/west" organization. Spain, got most of South America, while Portugal got to own Brazil. Portugal also owned African countries like Angola and East Timor in Southeast Asia. The only Southeast Asian country to have Portuguese as an official language. Ferdinand Megallan, was a Portuguese explorer. But he worked for Spain and he claimed some islands in the Asia-Pacific area for Spain.
What languages are spoken in the mid 17th century?
In the mid-17th century, languages such as English, Spanish, French, Portuguese, Dutch, and Latin were widely spoken in various regions, colonies, and empires around the world. These languages were dominant due to colonial expansion and trade networks during that period.
How did the Spanish build their empire in the Americans?
The Portuguese and Spanish explorers and conquistadors built their New World empires by suppressing the Native Americans.
Which European countries had a successful explorations and empires in the new world?
At various times, the Spanish, the British, the Dutch, the French, and the Portuguese all had empires in the New World.
Did the Portuguese treat natives well when the explored and claimed?
No, the Portuguese enslaved the natives and spread diseases among them. Unfortunately most of the natives under the Portuguese and Spanish Empires died because of poor treatment.
Why did latin America have little influence on the world economy between 1492 and 1845?
Because they were counted as part of the European economy. At the time, Latin America was a colony of the Spanish, French and Portuguese empires.
In what ways were the Spanish and Portuguese empires in the Americas similar?
Both were interested in discovering a sea route from Europe to Asia.
What are the different between the Inca and Aztec empires?
the difference is i hate this stupid website
What are the difference between the Inca and Aztec empires?
The Aztecs were in Mexico and the Incas were in Peru
The pope divided the new world between spain and portugal?
The early political claims of European Imperialists on the America involved Papal intervention and mediation. Pope Alexander VI wrote the Treaty of Tordesillas (1494) demarcating South America between the Spanish and Portuguese Empires.
Was Siam a Portuguese colony?
No, Siam was not a Portuguese colony. The southeast Asian country was the precursor to the modern Thailand. It never was the direct colony of any of the colonial empires between the sixteenth and the twentieth centuries.
What are the empires chronological order?
Eqyptian Assyrian Babylonian Medo-Persian Greek Roman Byzantine and Ottoman Portuguese and Spanish Dutch and French British American/post colonial era
What did the spanish and portuguese establish in Latin America in order to extract wealth and resources?
"Overseas territories" qualify as such. These were regions belonging to both empires, and were governed by viceroys appointed by the King or Queen.
What is the difference between the states formed by the First Civilizations and the empires formed between 500 BC and 500 CE?
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