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Sudentland is the territory of Czechoslovakia that was formaly owned by Germany, when you look at it from a World War 2 perspective. The United States and Britain forced Czechoslovakia to give up Sudentland to Hitler, this was called the Munich Agreement. The Munich Agreement gave Hitler Sudentland as long as he promissed not to make anymore territorial claims. He broke the promiss when he invaded Czechoslovakia.
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∙ 15y ago
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∙ 12y agoIn Czechoslovakia just beside Germany
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What was included in the British appeasement of Germany in the 1930's?
sudentland
Why did Hitler occupy sudentland?
Although it was part of Czechoslovakia, the Sudetenland was populated by ethnic Germans.
What country did Hitler demand in Czechoslovakia?
It wasnt a country. It was an area around Czechoslovakia that was called the Sudentland. He said the Czechs were misstreating Germans
Was appeasement a mistake in World War 2?
If you are referring to the appeasement of Hitler, it could be considered a mistake. However, neither the French and especially the British would not have gone to war over the Sudentland, so Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain had no choice. A war would not have been supported. Either way, Hitler would have taken the Sudentland, war or no war.
Why didn't Britain and France do anything about the remilitarisation of the Rhineland?
Chamberlain was acting on the policy of appeasement, so he was trying to meet Hitler's demands in order to avoid another war. Hitler was planning to pull out of the Rhineland as soon as Britain and France told him to, but they never did. They were fearful he ould declare war and reject the Treaty of Versailles, so hey said he was 'marching in his own back yard'. However this made Hitler more confident that he could get away with break more terms of the treaty, especially having seen the effects of the Manchurian crisis, so he was only stopped when he eventually invaded Poland in 1939. (Also Britain and France were a bit tied up with the worrying situation with Mussolini in Africa, and basically the League of Nations was falling apart so there was nothing much they could do anyway.)
What was included in the British appeasement of Germany in the 1930's?
sudentland
Why did Hitler occupy sudentland?
Although it was part of Czechoslovakia, the Sudetenland was populated by ethnic Germans.
What country did Hitler demand in Czechoslovakia?
It wasnt a country. It was an area around Czechoslovakia that was called the Sudentland. He said the Czechs were misstreating Germans
Was Hitler happy with the Munich Agreement?
Yes, Hitler obtained what he wanted from both Britain and France. This allowed him to proceed with his seizure of the Sudentland, which led to the eventual absorption of Czechoslovakia by the Third Reich. If either France or Britain would have been willing to stand up to Hitler militarily, then Hitler would have been forced to back down. The reason being that the Wehrmacht was not ready to handle a 2 front war.
Was appeasement a mistake in World War 2?
If you are referring to the appeasement of Hitler, it could be considered a mistake. However, neither the French and especially the British would not have gone to war over the Sudentland, so Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain had no choice. A war would not have been supported. Either way, Hitler would have taken the Sudentland, war or no war.
What were three acts of aggression by dictators in the 1930's?
I would assume you are talking about Germany and other European countries. 1936-In violation of the Versailles Treaty, Germany occupies the Rhineland 1938-Germany enters Austria and "anschluss" (union) is announced. There were many Germans in Austria and for the most part, the German army had little or on resistance. 1938-England and France agree to allow Hitler to annex the Sudentland, part of Czechoslovakia. The Czechs do not agree. Hitler takes it anyway. 3 weeks later Hitler takes the rest of Czechoslovakia. Sept 1, 1939, Hitler invades Poland (as does Russia). They divide it among themselves. Hitler & Stalin had signed a non-aggression pact. This is the official start of WWII. 1940-Katyn Forest- on Stalin's orders, the NKVD shot and buried over 4000 Polish service personnel that had been taken prisoner when the Soviet Union invaded Poland in September 1939 in WW2 in support of the Nazis. 1941-Hitler ignores the non-agression pact with Stalin and marches into the USSR. Countries attacked or occupied by Germany * Northwest Africa * Albania * Austria * Belgium * Bylorussia (part of the USSR) * Channel Islands (part of Britain) * The Crimea (part of the USSR) * Denmark * Estonia * France * Greece * Latvia * Lithuania * Luxembourg * Netherlands (Holland) * Norway * Poland * Silesia * The Sudentenland * The TransCaucus region (part of the USSR) * Ukraine (part of the USSR) * Yugoslovia
What did Churchill have to do with World War 2?
The question makes an inaccurate assumption. Winston Churchill did NOT 'enter World War 2'. It was Neville Chamberlain (of appeasement repute) who took Britain to war in 1939. When Churchill took over as prime minister in May 1940, Britain had already been at war for several months.
Was Germany occupied by Germany during World War 2?
The reference to 'occupied' is odd. Berlin was the capital of Germany from 1871-1949 and became the capital again in 1990. Until the final collapse of the Third Reich in April-May, 1945 the city was in German hands. It then passed briefly to the Soviet Union. Later in 1945, the city was divided into four sectors (British, French, Sovier and American). With the division off Germany into East and West, the three Western sectors were administered as a single unit for most purposes.
Why didn't Britain and France do anything about the remilitarisation of the Rhineland?
Chamberlain was acting on the policy of appeasement, so he was trying to meet Hitler's demands in order to avoid another war. Hitler was planning to pull out of the Rhineland as soon as Britain and France told him to, but they never did. They were fearful he ould declare war and reject the Treaty of Versailles, so hey said he was 'marching in his own back yard'. However this made Hitler more confident that he could get away with break more terms of the treaty, especially having seen the effects of the Manchurian crisis, so he was only stopped when he eventually invaded Poland in 1939. (Also Britain and France were a bit tied up with the worrying situation with Mussolini in Africa, and basically the League of Nations was falling apart so there was nothing much they could do anyway.)
What were Hitler's goals during World War 2?
He had no demands. He wanted war and conquest. Conquered peoples were either to be subjugated under German rule, if they were lucky, or exterminated if they were considered "sub-human". Michael Montagne His objective was the conquest of the "living space to the east," Russia. Followed by the anniliation of the "sub humans" -- Russians, Jews, Slavs etc., etc.
