Why did great Britain and France agree to the munich agreement policy of appeasement?

Answer 1

I think they were hoping for a less bloody alternative to the knee-jerk response of automatic war which preceded World War 1. If they had been dealing with a more conventional government than that of Hitler and the Nazis it might have worked, but in retrospect the weakness of the appeasement policy is clearly seen. Yes, the above is true: It needs to be remembered that WW1 was fresh in the memory. The idea that another World War would in fact be so much worse was wholly unimaginable. The appeal of Not fighting was thought to be a viable prospect. Hindsight is a very desirable commodity !

Answer 2

It was a vain attempt to avoid a repitition of what had gone before, that is WW1. Unfortunately the thinking was that Hitler was a man of principle. But I think it has to be borne in mind that those in power in the late 1930s were very much aware of what had happened in Europe just 20 years before. Hindsight shows that Appeasement was simply wrong, but they were not to know that at the time. As the saying goes in diplomacy, speak softly & carry a big stick.....

Answer 3

They thought giving Hitker what he wanted ( the action of appeasment) would prevent another world war.

Answer 4

Because the last thing they wanted was to have another war started with them caught in the middle.