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I don't think the assumption made in the question is accurate.

Following the Kristallnacht the British government eased some of the restrictions on allowing refugees from Nazi Germany to enter the U.K. This was done for humanitarian reasons and in response to pressure from public opinion. This is not the same thing as saying that people 'turned away' from appeasement.

Generally, historians see the Nazi seizure, in March 1939, of the 'rump' of Czechoslovakia left after the annexation of the Sudetenland as the key turning-point in attitudes towards appeasement. Within two weeks Neville Chamberlain gave Poland a verbal guarantee of assistance if it was attacked by Germany (though the actual treaty with Poland was not worked out till later); and in April 1939 the British parliament passed legislation for the reintroduction of conscription (compulsory military service). This was the first time that Britain introduced conscription in peace time.

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Q: Why did kristallnacht turn british people away from appeasement?
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