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Written in 1516, Thomas More's Utopia is a work of fiction - but it does include criticisms of Kings and government. The problem of Kings starting wars and squandering money is introduced, as well as an argument against executing thieves. More describes the systems as broken, but argues that it is better to fight within a broken system, than to try to make a new one.

Although he did criticise the government, he did not embrace private ownership. Utopia had no private ownership - goods are stored in warehouses and everyone asks for what they need. Even the houses are rotated amongst the people - with no one living in the same house for more than 10 years. However, it is not obvious whether More intended all of the aspects of Utopia to be ideal - some aspects appear to be ironic or satirical.

Also, More made it quite clear from the beginning - with the title Utopia, meaning "no place" - that he believed a perfect society was not possible. Therefore the absence of private ownership might not necessarily reflect a dislike for this in real life.

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Q: Did Thomas More the author of Utopia condemn government and embrace private ownership?
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