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Wealthy nobles often paid their servants with their "old" clothes, which were made of rich fabrics. It was illegal for poor and lower class people to wear clothing made of certain fabrics such as satin, silk and velvet. Therefore, the servants sold the clothes to the acting companies to get money and the actors were allowed to wear the clothes on the stage because they were playing characters that were usually nobles and kings. If they were playing historical characters, such as Romans, they might have special costumes made that kind of looked Roman. There is a drawing, made in Shakespeare's time, that shows actors in the play "Titus Andronicus." Their costumes are a combination of Roman robes and Roman style helmets and Elizabethan clothing.

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What were Shakespeare's costumes like?

We have only one clue as to the costumes used in Shakespeare's plays during his lifetime. This is a drawing called the Peacham drawing of a performance of Titus Andronicus. You can see it at the related link


Which Shakespeare plays used elizabethan costumes?

Shakespeare's plays were originally performed in Elizabethan times, and therefore, they utilized the fashion of that era as part of their staging. Costumes typically reflected the social status and character types, with nobles wearing elaborate attire and commoners in simpler garments. Notable plays like "Romeo and Juliet," "Hamlet," and "A Midsummer Night's Dream" featured these period costumes, enhancing the authenticity and visual appeal of the performances. The use of Elizabethan costumes helped convey character and setting, immersing the audience in the world of the play.


Were Shakespeare's costumes ignored by acting companies?

Shakespeare did not own any costumes, so "Shakespeare's costumes" doesn't mean anything. If you mean the specific and detailed instructions he gave in his scripts as to what the actors ought to wear, there aren't any. Usually Shakespeare left no instructions as to how anyone was to be costumed.


Did Shakespeare own his costumes and scripts?

No, his company owned them. They were not Shakespeare's personal property.


Who write the plays Shakespeare?

Shakespeare wrote Shakespeare's plays. Other theories may be entertaining but have no evidence to support them.


Are Shakespeare's plays written in verses?

Yes Shakespeare's plays were written in verses.


How many plays comprise Shakespeare's portfolio?

Shakespeare wrote 38 plays.


When was The Plays of William Shakespeare created?

The Plays of William Shakespeare was created in 1765.


Who authored Shakespeare's plays?

William Shakespeare


Did people speak the what they do in Shakespeare's plays?

All of the plays of William Shakespeare were written in English.


How many plays had shakespeare wrote?

There were exactly 63 plays that shakespeare wrote by himself


William Shakespeare didn't write his plays?

Is this a question? William Shakespeare did write his plays.