Shakespeare did not own any costumes, so "Shakespeare's costumes" doesn't mean anything. If you mean the specific and detailed instructions he gave in his scripts as to what the actors ought to wear, there aren't any. Usually Shakespeare left no instructions as to how anyone was to be costumed.
A charter. He himself was the patron of the company. All acting companies at the time had to have a noble patron by law. This was to prevent vagabonds and conmen from pretending to be acting companies.
The Lord Chamberlain's Men was one of the leading acting companies of its day.
Acting companies got the costumes needed to play kings and other members of the aristocracy from the real aristocracy, who would donate them when they became worn or out of style.
Playwrights sold their scripts to acting companies who then had the exclusive rights to perform them. Since the companies had bought and paid for the scripts, the scripts were their property to do with as they would. The playwright had no further interest in them.
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it was the globe theatre
Acting companies got the costumes needed to play kings and other members of the aristocracy from the real aristocracy, who would donate them when they became worn or out of style.
Acting companies got the costumes needed to play kings and other members of the aristocracy from the real aristocracy, who would donate them when they became worn or out of style.
They may have had water, wine, ale, or rum; the same as the audience.
No. Nothing about acting requires a costume though for the audience it often makes it more entertaining.
Shakespeare's occupations were Writing plays, sonnets and acting.
None. It was against the law for women to act in this time in history.