Playwrights sold their scripts to acting companies who then had the exclusive rights to perform them. Since the companies had bought and paid for the scripts, the scripts were their property to do with as they would. The playwright had no further interest in them.
Yes, I can. So can you, probably, if you think about it, but if not, check the related question.
With the exception of the period between 1640 and 1660 or so, Shakespeare's plays have been continuously performed in London since about 1590 or so.
I think, probably, Romeo and Juliet.
I think it's the pit, which is infront of the stage.
hmm...i think that'll be an opinion question. if it is homework help then just put what you think of it by common sense. (i would say horrified since there is just TV and no one gets off their butts, and watch plays ☺)
Shakespeare did...
The supernatural adds an atmosphere of mystery and suspense to the drama.
Yes, I can. So can you, probably, if you think about it, but if not, check the related question.
With the exception of the period between 1640 and 1660 or so, Shakespeare's plays have been continuously performed in London since about 1590 or so.
Yes, it is considered a content of a property in a will. The reason why i think that is,because of how there modeled or what they have on there car of what there made of.
I think that "property" of a business is consider when any or all materials were purchased by the business.
It depends what you think is distasteful. Did Shakespeare make dirty jokes? Absolutely. Some plays, like Romeo and Juliet, Measure for Measure, and Troilus and Cressida, have more than others.
i do not know where his hometown was i think it was in Germany
I think, probably, Romeo and Juliet.
I think it's the pit, which is infront of the stage.
I think his greatest creation was the playwright of Romeo and Juliet.
i don't see why not i think that it would wrong if girls werent aloud to be in one of William shakespeares play but call for further information and your nearest thretre thanks for the question