answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

The two could not have met; Richard died eighty years before Shakespeare was born. Therefore Shakespeare could not have based his opinions on personal knowledge. The historians he relied upon had good reason to badmouth Richard, since they were all writing in the reign of his successor, who had an extremely dodgy claim to the throne. It was the politically correct thing to do during the reign of the Tudors to make Richard out as bad as possible, and that's what Shakespeare did.

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Did Shakespeare like Richard III
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp