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Well, he did write at least part of all of the ones we attribute to him. If we thought he had nothing to do with them we wouldn't call them "his plays". Over the years people have suggested that all kinds of anonymous plays which we have from the era were really written by Shakespeare, but eventually these plays get weeded out of collections of Shakespeare's plays in which overenthusiastic editors have included them. I am thinking of plays like Arden of Faversham, The Second Maiden's Tragedy, or Edward III.

It is a fact of the way Elizabethan and Jacobean playwrights worked that collaborations were common, and plays often were credited to more than one playwright. Shakespeare was involved in fewer collaborations than many of his contemporaries, but he was involved in some. The Two Noble Kinsmen is specifically said to be co-written with John Fletcher. Fletcher may also have been Shakespeare's collaborator on Pericles and Henry VIII. Some people think that Thomas Middleton contributed to Macbeth and Timon of Athens. Some also think that George Peele wrote some of Titus Andronicus. It would be silly to exclude these collaborations from an examination of Shakespeare's work, all the more so when, as is usually the case, no credit was given to his collaborator.

The truth is that of the 38 plays we attribute to Shakespeare, 37 were published with his name listed as the sole author either in his lifetime or within a few years of his death. That gives pretty strong grounds (against which no coherent argument has ever been made) that he wrote them.

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10y ago
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12y ago

He wrote thirty-eight we can agree on, two we know the names of but don't have copies of and maybe more that we haven't heard of or know about but don't know are by Shakespeare. So he wrote at least forty, maybe more.

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11y ago

Yep. He actually wrote more, but we only have the 36 plays in the First Folio, Pericles and The Two Noble Kinsmen which he co-wrote with John Fletcher.

He also wrote plays called Cardenio and Love's Labour's Won.

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8y ago

Yes, at least thirty-seven. Thirty-six plays were included in the First Folio. There is no serious doubt about any of these. In the second Folio, Pericles was added. Pericles had already been printed in Quarto form under Shakespeare's name during his lifetime, so it is safe to say that he wrote this one too. The Two Noble Kinsmen was published in 1634 credited to Fletcher and Shakespeare as collaborators. It took some time, but nowadays nobody seriously doubts that Shakespeare co-wrote this one. Then there are the lost plays Love's Labour's Won and Cardenio. There is good evidence that Shakespeare wrote plays by these names but no copy survives. And it is now generally accepted that Shakespeare was one of the collaborators on the play Sir Thomas More, which was never completed to the satisfaction of the censors. In addition to these, Shakespeare is from time to time credited with having written a play which was published anonymously but which someone thinks is in Shakespeare's style, e.g. Edward III. So, while we can safely say that Shakespeare wrote 37 plays, he probably wrote more like forty-some.

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12y ago

Yes, Shakespeare wrote 37 plays or 38 if you count the Two Noble Kinsmen which he co-wrote with John Fletcher.

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Q: Did William shakespeare write more than 36 plays?
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When is the next Shakespeare play and what is it called?

William Shakespeare died in 1616. It is extremely unlikely that he will write any more plays.


What encouraged Shakespeare to write stories?

Shakespeare didn't write stories. He wrote plays. Plays are very different from stories. Imagine if you took your favourite story and left out everything except the things that the characters say. That's what a play is like. Shakespeare was encourage to write plays because it was his job. The more plays and the better plays he wrote, the more money he made.


Did Shakespeare actually write the plays that everyone thinks he did?

All of the evidence we have goes to say that he did. That is to say, all of the plays were published either without an author's name or with Shakespeare's name on them, and never with anyone else's name. They were exclusively performed by theatrical companies of which the actor William Shakespeare was a member, and were published by members of that company. Records of the same plays being played at court and elsewhere credit William Shakespeare with having written them. And never anyone else. On the other hand there is no evidence that anyone other than William Shakespeare of Stratford, the actor with the King's Men, wrote those plays. Nobody ever credits them to anyone else. There was nobody else by the name of William Shakespeare that we know of and nobody else called Shakespeare who was a writer. People did not write plays under a pseudonym in those days, and nobody at that time ever suggested that "William Shakespeare" was a pseudonym. You may say that is not absolute proof. Perhaps not, but absolute proof is not required for anything which we regularly accept as true. The proof that Shakespeare did indeed write what he is credited with is more than sufficient for us to accept it as fact.


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