38 and old fashioned format
Rumor is Shakespeare did not write his own plays published under his name they say he had help writing them.
Is this a question? William Shakespeare did write his plays.
It was his job, or one of his jobs. Shakespeare was paid to write plays.
In 1623, about seven years after Shakespeare's death, two of his colleagues published a collection of Shakespeare's plays containing 36 scripts, about half of which had been previously published. The play Pericles, which had been published in 1609, was soon added. Scholars now also consider Shakespeare to have been one of the authors of The Two Noble Kinsmen, which was published as written by Shakespeare and Fletcher. (Fletcher almost certainly co- wrote other plays with Shakespeare.) Then there are two titles of plays of which no copies have come down to us: Cardenio and Love's Labour's Won. So that makes forty plays altogether. There may have been more we don't know about.
Shakespeare wrote Shakespeare's plays. Other theories may be entertaining but have no evidence to support them.
Rumor is Shakespeare did not write his own plays published under his name they say he had help writing them.
Is this a question? William Shakespeare did write his plays.
It was his job, or one of his jobs. Shakespeare was paid to write plays.
In 1623, about seven years after Shakespeare's death, two of his colleagues published a collection of Shakespeare's plays containing 36 scripts, about half of which had been previously published. The play Pericles, which had been published in 1609, was soon added. Scholars now also consider Shakespeare to have been one of the authors of The Two Noble Kinsmen, which was published as written by Shakespeare and Fletcher. (Fletcher almost certainly co- wrote other plays with Shakespeare.) Then there are two titles of plays of which no copies have come down to us: Cardenio and Love's Labour's Won. So that makes forty plays altogether. There may have been more we don't know about.
Shakespeare wrote Shakespeare's plays. Other theories may be entertaining but have no evidence to support them.
No. That is not to say it's impossible, but Shakespeare at that stage of his life had no access to theatrical people or to any publishers. It's highly unlikely that Shakespeare would have attempted to write a play, and even more unlikely that he would have had it published. Plays were only published after long and successful theatre runs, which no such juvenile effort would have had. There is not one scintilla of evidence which would suggest otherwise.
Yes. Shakespeare was not the owner of the right to publish his plays. His position was rather like that of someone hired by a television network to write a script for a television show. The script belongs to the network, not the writer. In the same way, Shakespeare's scripts belonged to the King's Men. Some of the Quarto editions published during his lifetime seem to be pirate copies and others seem to be copies published by the company. The Folio, published in 1623, was published by two members of the company, not by Shakespeare's residuary legatees John and Susanna Hall.
No, Shakespeare wrote plays, sonnets and poems.
Since everything Shakespeare wrote has at some time or another been published in book form, from one perspective he certainly did write books. Indeed he intended some of it, especially his long poems Venus and Adonis and The Rape of Lucrece to be published in book form.What you mean possibly is: "Why did William Shakespeare not write novels?" The reason is that novels were at that time a new form of writing that was rare and not fully developed. There was no money in them. Plays on the other hand were what Shakespeare was paid to write.
No, Shakespeare wrote plays. Other people decided to sort them into genres.
no
A quill pen.