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This question is impossible to answer for a number of reasons. First, modern English spelling is not all that consistent, particularly between American and British spellers. Second, the spellings of the words in the printed copies of the plays which have come down to us are the spellings of the typesetters, not Shakespeare's. The result is that different editions of the plays had different spellings throughout.

An example (Romeo's speech from Romeo and Juliet 2,2 just before Juliet's famous line):

"O speake againe bright angell, for thou art as glorious to this night being ore my head as is a winged messenger of heaven unto the white upturned wondring eyes of mortalls that fall backe to gaze on him, when he bestrides the lazie puffing Cloudes and failes upon the bosome of the ayre" (Folio, 1623)

"O speake againe bright angell, for thou art as glorious to this night beeing over my head as is a winged messenger of heaven unto the white upturned woondring eyes of mortals that fall backe to gaze on him, when he bestrides the lasie pacing cloudes and failes upon the bosome of the aire" (First Quarto, 1597)

"O speake againe bright angel, for thou art as glorious to this night being ore my head as is a winged messenger of heaven unto the white upturned wondring eyes of mortalls that fall backe to gaze on him, when he bestrides the lazie puffing Cloudes and fayles upon the bosome of the ayre" (Second Quarto, 1599)

Q2 has "angel" when Q1 and F have "angell"; Q1 has "mortals" when Q2 and F have "mortalls".

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