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"Shakespeare" isn't the name of a language. Shakespeare spoke and wrote in English. That is why Shakespeare would say "very noble" for "very noble" Hamlet says, "That is Laertes, a very noble youth." This meant something slightly different at the time, since "very" was then a new word, a bit hoity-toity, and meant "truly", not "more than average" Mercutio makes fun of people who use "very" a lot: "The pox of such antic, lisping, affecting fantasticoes--these new tuners of accent! 'By Jesu, a very good blade! a very tall man! a very good whore!'"
"Very noble" meant, and means, "really noble" or "truly noble". To convey the idea of superlative nobility, Shakespeare might say "most noble", and he does in fact use this phrase, but almost exclusively, curiously enough, in the tragedies set in ancient Rome, especially Antony and Cleopatra, Julius Caesar and Coriolanus. It's used to describe Antony a lot in both plays he's in. Who knows why?
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Why did antony say brutus was the noblest of them all?
Because he was very noble
How would Shakespeare say guess?
He would say guess. As in this line from Titus Andronicus: "My lord, I know not, I, nor can I guess".
Why did shakespeare use iambic pentameter for the dialogue of noble character while commoners often spoke in prose?
This was because, generally speaking, the noble characters had noble things to say. The plebes were given jokes or other silliness. Blank verse, unrhymed iambic pentameter, makes things said in it sound more noble; it emphasizes the nobility of the statement. These statements are not only poetic because of their rhythm, but because of the imagery and figures of speech they employ. However, if a noble character went insane or stopped saying noble things, Shakespeare would start to write their dialogue in prose.
What did critics say was William Shakespeare's most famous play?
Most academics would argue Hamlet is Shakespeare's greatest and most famous work. In popular culture, it would probably be considered Romeo and Juliet. Macbeth is also a very famous work of his.Shakesperae was also know for his tragedies.
How would Shakespeare say 'awesome'?
If he said it, he would say it with an accent like that we associate with pirates, because that is the accent they had back then. But then he may not have said it, as he doesn't use it in any of his plays. Of course, if you are asking how Shakespeare would say that something was really really good, he might well use the word "excellent" as in "A fellow of infinite jest, of most excellent fancy". "Excellent" was one of Shakespeare's favourite words.
How would Shakespeare say where are you?
Shakespeare would say "Wherefore art though?"
What animal is noble?
That is a very debateable question, but I would have to say canines. I hope that helped :)
How do you say our in Shakespearian?
Shakespeare spoke English, you would say 'our'.
Why did antony say brutus was the noblest of them all?
Because he was very noble
Who was one of the greatest writers of the renaissance?
I would say William Shakespeare as he has wrote many bookss and is very important in the English literature Hopr this helped
What were Shakespeare's last two plays?
It is difficult to say with accuracy. The Two Noble Kinsmen, Henry VIII and the now lost Cardenio are probably the last ones.
What would Shakespeare say if he were still alive?
"My God, I'm old!"
How would Shakespeare say guess?
He would say guess. As in this line from Titus Andronicus: "My lord, I know not, I, nor can I guess".
Who are the noble women living in the world?
Oprah i would say that completely depends on you
What noble gift did the Cyclops say he would give to Odysseus?
To be eaten last
Why did shakespeare use iambic pentameter for the dialogue of noble character while commoners often spoke in prose?
This was because, generally speaking, the noble characters had noble things to say. The plebes were given jokes or other silliness. Blank verse, unrhymed iambic pentameter, makes things said in it sound more noble; it emphasizes the nobility of the statement. These statements are not only poetic because of their rhythm, but because of the imagery and figures of speech they employ. However, if a noble character went insane or stopped saying noble things, Shakespeare would start to write their dialogue in prose.
How would shakespeare say the best?
He would say, "the best". And he does say it, a lot. E.g. "Murder most foul, as in the best it is." or "thou art the best of the cutthroats".
