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Shakespeare was a part owner of the Lord Chamberlain's Men, later known as the King's Men.
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Did Shakespeare own his costumes and scripts?
No, his company owned them. They were not Shakespeare's personal property.
What theatre did shakespeare co-own that later became the kings men?
There seems to be some confusion here. A theatre is a building where plays are performed. Shakespeare bought a share in one such theatre in 1599 and in a second one in 1608. As a part-owner, he got a tenth of any rentals paid to these theatres by any acting companies that played there.The thing was that the owners of the theatres all belonged to the same acting company, although not everyone in the acting company had shares in the theatre building. And this acting company was in fact the best customer of the two theatres. But the acting company had been formed five years before Shakespeare had an interest in any theatres, and Shakespeare was a charter member of the acting company when it formed as The Lord Chamberlain's Men in 1594. The same group reformed as The King's Men in 1603. To summarize:Theatre=building. Shakespeare owned a share in two (Globe and Blackfriars); there were about 7 sharers who had unequal shares (Richard and Cuthbert Burbage owned 25% each)Theatre or Acting Company=group of actors. Shakespeare owned a share in one, called The Lord Chamberlain's Men 1594-1603 and The King's Men after 1603; there were about 12 sharers each with an equal share.
Which part of the king's men did shakespeare own?
The various actors in the company owned shares in all of the company's assets (primarily scripts, props and costumes). It is believed that Shakespeare had a one-twelfth interest.
Which part or parts did Shakespeare play?
Shakespeare began his career in the London theatre as an actor. We can be reasonably certain of this because a critic of his first play, Robert Greene, wrote a highly unfavourable review in which he stated that it was presumptuous of a "mere actor" to write a play. Shakespeare's name appears in the cast lists of the Chamberlain's Men acting company. However, there are notes stating he appeared in his own work but which is not defined
Who were Shakespeare's plays specifically written for?
Shakespeare wrote his plays for theatre companies who would put them on and pay him for them. After he became a partner in a theatre company in 1594 he wrote all of his plays specifically for his own company to perform.
Did Shakespeare own his costumes and scripts?
No, his company owned them. They were not Shakespeare's personal property.
When did shakespeare go from acting to writing?
He didn't. He did both at the same time, often acting in his own plays in minor roles.
Who paid William Shakespeare per work?
Those playwrights who were not also actors were paid per work by the acting companies that put their plays on. But at least after 1594, Shakespeare did not sell his plays in this way. Instead, his own acting company put them on and he had a share in the profits. In this way, Shakespeare was able to earn a decent living, unlike most playwrights of the time.
What theatre did shakespeare co-own that later became the kings men?
There seems to be some confusion here. A theatre is a building where plays are performed. Shakespeare bought a share in one such theatre in 1599 and in a second one in 1608. As a part-owner, he got a tenth of any rentals paid to these theatres by any acting companies that played there.The thing was that the owners of the theatres all belonged to the same acting company, although not everyone in the acting company had shares in the theatre building. And this acting company was in fact the best customer of the two theatres. But the acting company had been formed five years before Shakespeare had an interest in any theatres, and Shakespeare was a charter member of the acting company when it formed as The Lord Chamberlain's Men in 1594. The same group reformed as The King's Men in 1603. To summarize:Theatre=building. Shakespeare owned a share in two (Globe and Blackfriars); there were about 7 sharers who had unequal shares (Richard and Cuthbert Burbage owned 25% each)Theatre or Acting Company=group of actors. Shakespeare owned a share in one, called The Lord Chamberlain's Men 1594-1603 and The King's Men after 1603; there were about 12 sharers each with an equal share.
Who wrote plays with the intention they be performed often with specific actors in mind?
Lots of playwrights, Shakespeare for one. Shakespeare was writing with his own acting company, the King's Men in mind. This is apparent as many of the early printed copies call the characters by the actor's name rather than the character's. For example, in Romeo and Juliet, the character of Peter is referred to in print as Kempe. Will Kempe is the actor who played this part in Shakespeare's company.
What did William Shakespeare like to watch?
Other people's plays. He rarely watched his own plays because he was usually acting in them.
Why did Queen Elizabeth I save Shakespeare's acting company?
She didn't. Some people think she did and that Edward De Vere was the real Shakespeare, writing all the plays for William, and that Edward was Queen Elizabeth's son. Actual historians and scholars think these people are crazy. The true facts are that Queen Elizabeth did not "save Shakespeare's acting company". The Queen was a promoter of the theatre, being the sponsor of her own company, The Queen's Men, long before Shakespeare was even in London. This company still existed in the 1590s but was of small significance after the departure of their star, Richard Tarleton. She also ensured that there was legislation which protected any acting company which had the support of a noble or royal person. Shakespeare was part of the theatre scene before 1593, as we have a couple of references which make most sense when they are taken to refer to Shakespeare and his plays. In 1593 plague closed the theatres, but young Shakespeare made a packet of money selling copies of his semi-pornographic poem Venus and Adonis. A lot of theatre companies went backrupt at this time, but the actors reformed into new companies. One of these companies, made up mostly of actors from the former Lord Strange's Men, and headed up by the two sons of the theatre builder James Burbage, star actor Richard Burbage and savvy businessman Cuthbert Burbage reformed under the patronage of the Lord Chamberlain. They recruited the promising young writer and actor William Shakespeare to join their company, and he invested his money in it and became a junior partner. Thanks to Richard Burbage's acting, Cuthbert's management, the fact that the Burbages owned shares in a bunch of theatre buildings around London, and the steady supply of Shakespeare plays, the company went from strength to strength throughout Elizabeth's reign. After her death, the patronage of the company was taken over by the new king and the company continued to prosper long after Shakespeare and the Burbages left it. To summarize: 1. Queen Elizabeth created legislation that protected all of the chartered acting companies. 2. Queen Elizabeth did sponsor an acting company, but William Shakespeare never had anything to do with it. 3. William Shakespeare was never the director, owner, or even principal shareholder in any acting company. 4. The only acting company with which we know Shakespeare to have been associated (and he was associated with it for almost 20 years), was never in any danger that would have required Queen Elizabeth or anyone else to "save" it.
Is Ford and Mazda the same company?
No. Ford is it's own company. Ford owns Lincoln and Mercury. Mazda is partly owned by Audi.
Did Shakespeare's theater close in 1592?
What theatre are you thinking of as "shakespeare's theatre"? Because Shakespeare did not own even a part of any theatre in 1592. Nor did he own even a part of any theatrical company. In fact he may not have even been a permanent member of any theatrical company at that time. There was nothing you could call "shakespeare's theatre" in 1592.
In what theatres did William Shakespeare perform his plays?
William Shakespeare acted in his own plays in four theatres: the Theatre, Curtain, Globe and Blackfriars. He may also have appeared in his own plays before 1594 with whatever company he was with, but we do not know which company or which theatre.
Which part of the king's men did shakespeare own?
The various actors in the company owned shares in all of the company's assets (primarily scripts, props and costumes). It is believed that Shakespeare had a one-twelfth interest.
Were Shakespeare's costumes ignored by acting companies?
Shakespeare did not own any costumes, so "Shakespeare's costumes" doesn't mean anything. If you mean the specific and detailed instructions he gave in his scripts as to what the actors ought to wear, there aren't any. Usually Shakespeare left no instructions as to how anyone was to be costumed.
