Although King James did not give him a spot on the team that translated The Bible into English from Latin, he did sponsor his theatrical company, so Shakespeare must have been on good terms with at least one British sovereign.
Distant. Just because he worked for them from time to time did not mean he was on speaking terms with Elizabeth or James, any more than working for Wal-mart means you are on speaking terms with the CEO of that company. The monarchs were in the audience when Shakespeare and his fellow players performed at court, but all arrangements were made through the Master of the Revels.
None. Shakespeare was a player, essentially a tradesman. He performed at court when the Master of the Revels asked his company to do so, and the Queen watched. Shakespeare had no more relationship with the queen than did the cobbler who made her boots.
Shakespeare was a subject of Queen Elizabeth 1st. There is no record of them ever meeting.
She was the Queen; he was a subject. It was exactly the same relationship as she had with everyone else in England.
i dont kon
nothink
good
If you are talking about England, the country where Shakespeare was born, Elizabeth the 1st was the Queen
Queen Elizabeth, which is why his speech is often called "Elizabethan English"
Elizabeth the first reigned England during the time William Shakespeare began to write.
James the 1st was monarch when Shakespeare wrote the Tempest because Shakespeare wrote the Tempest when he was coming tot the end of his life and during his life Queen Elizabeth 1 and James 1 reigned and Queen Elizabeth 1 was monarch when Shakespeare was born so it is obviously James 1.The tempest was written in 1611. James I was king.
elizabeth the 1st
If you are talking about England, the country where Shakespeare was born, Elizabeth the 1st was the Queen
Elizabeth the 1st was the Queen of England in November of 1582 when Shakespeare married Anne Hathaway.
Queen Elizabeth, which is why his speech is often called "Elizabethan English"
Elizabeth the first reigned England during the time William Shakespeare began to write.
Queen Elizabeth the first up to 1603. After that, the queen was Anne of Denmark, James 1st's wife.
She wasn't. She was the queen, of course, but her successor, James the 1st was much more important to Shakespeare, being the sponsor of the theatrical company to which he belonged.
James the 1st was monarch when Shakespeare wrote the Tempest because Shakespeare wrote the Tempest when he was coming tot the end of his life and during his life Queen Elizabeth 1 and James 1 reigned and Queen Elizabeth 1 was monarch when Shakespeare was born so it is obviously James 1.The tempest was written in 1611. James I was king.
No. There is no evidence that Queen Elizabeth commissioned any plays at all, or that she ever had more than a passing acquaintance with Shakespeare, who did perform before her a few times.
Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth does not have nicknames.
Elizabeth the 1st and James the 1st
Elizabeth the 1st
England and Ireland