We will never know the extent of his feeling. Death of children was not an unusual thing at that time and people did not get as frantic about it as they do now. They got sad, but they also accepted that this sort of thing happened. Shakespeare himself had watched his sister Anne die at the age of eight. He was not apparently in Stratford at the time Hamnet died, but was on tour in Kent. It might have taken some time for the news to get to him, by which time Hamnet was likely already buried. Did this affect him profoundly? We have so little record of his emotional life, we cannot know.
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You must mean in the movie Shakespeare in Love, where Shakespeare has given the false name "Christopher Marlowe" and believes that his (Shakespeare's) enemies have killed Marlowe by mistake. This is an entirely fictional story for which there is no basis in fact.
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
It probably did, but if so it was not reflected in the plays which Shakespeare was writing at the time of Hamnet's death, viz. around 1596. Shakespeare was very close about his feelings and did not tell everyone about them (of if he did, they did not make note of it).
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Do you mean, "Did Shakespeare perform in a play called The Playhouse?" No, there was no such play, and the film of that name starred Buster Keaton and was made in 1921, long after Shakespeare's death. Do you mean, "Did Shakespeare perform in a playhouse?" Yes, understanding the word "playhouse" to mean a theatre where stage plays were performed. He was an actor and appeared in many playhouses.
You must mean in the movie Shakespeare in Love, where Shakespeare has given the false name "Christopher Marlowe" and believes that his (Shakespeare's) enemies have killed Marlowe by mistake. This is an entirely fictional story for which there is no basis in fact.
William Basse wrote about William Shakespeare when he was close to his death.
the black Death had nothing to do with Shakespeare,the plague was caused by the Flea off the rat.
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare was born after her death, so no.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
It probably did, but if so it was not reflected in the plays which Shakespeare was writing at the time of Hamnet's death, viz. around 1596. Shakespeare was very close about his feelings and did not tell everyone about them (of if he did, they did not make note of it).
Swift was born about fifty years after Shakespeare's death.
It was first printed in 1623, seven years after Shakespeare's death.
Nothing at all.