Any time you see a verb in Shakespeare that ends in 'd, you know that that apostrophe is replacing the letter "e". Therefore if you see whin'd, read whined; if you see lower'd, read lowered; if you see call'd, read called; if you see sham'd read shamed; if you see show'd read showed. Get the picture?
The reason for this is that sometimes people said that e and sometimes not. If they said it in a word like "whined" it would come out in two syllables: "why-ned". But if they didn't say that last e and said it all in one syllable (as everyone does nowadays) then it was spelled "whin'd"
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
Shakespeare was born in 1564, if that's what you mean. That was the year he started being Shakespeare.
in
to it
Whater and whind.
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
When people say Shakespeare they mean William Shakespeare the playwright. There was only ever one of him.
Shakespeare was born in 1564, if that's what you mean. That was the year he started being Shakespeare.
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to it
Sorry, Shakespeare did not use that word.
vvvd
evening
gggghhhh
Shakespeare does not use the word townsfolk.