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No, an efficiency greater than one would not be possible, since that would violate a very fundamental law of physics: conservation of energy. The efficiency of an "ideal machine" would be one, in many cases; the efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine would be less than one.

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What would a machine that had 100 percent mechanical efficiency be called?

A machine with 100 percent mechanical efficiency would be called an ideal machine, as it would have no energy losses due to friction, heat, or other inefficiencies.


Does an ideal machine have an effciency of 100 percent?

No, an ideal machine cannot have an efficiency of 100 percent. This is because some energy is always lost as heat due to factors like friction and resistance. The best an ideal machine can achieve is an efficiency of 100% by having no energy losses.


A measure of how much work put into a machine is changed into useful work output?

It's efficiency would be 100%, but it's basically a theoretical ideal, because no matter how much it is minimized, "machine" automatically means a certain amount of friction, and a certain amount of heat generated, even if they are tiny amounts. That prevents 100% efficiency.


If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?

If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).


What is the efficiency of a machine that miraculously converts all the input energy to useful output energy?

The efficiency of such a machine would be 100%, as all the input energy is converted to useful output energy without any losses. This would be an ideal scenario but is not practically achievable due to factors such as friction, heat dissipation, and other forms of energy loss in real-world machines.

Related Questions

What would a machine that had 100 percent mechanical efficiency be called?

A machine with 100 percent mechanical efficiency would be called an ideal machine, as it would have no energy losses due to friction, heat, or other inefficiencies.


Why would a machine with 100 percent efficiency be considered an ideal machine?

No heat loss = maximum output. There would be no loss of energy, which is an ideal condition.


Does an ideal machine have an effciency of 100 percent?

No, an ideal machine cannot have an efficiency of 100 percent. This is because some energy is always lost as heat due to factors like friction and resistance. The best an ideal machine can achieve is an efficiency of 100% by having no energy losses.


What is the difference between an ideal machine and a real machine?

In ideal machine input is equal to output . The efficiency of ideal machine is 100% . In real machine input is not equal to output .The efficiency of ideal machine in not 100% . In ideal machine there is no lose of energy . In real machine there is lose of energy . In real machine there is no friction . While in real machine there is friction .


An ideal machine would have an efficiency of?

A ideal machine would have an efficiency of 100 percent. For this to be possible, the amount of energy output by the machine would equal the amount of energy input. Because all machines have physical parts, some energy is lost to friction, heat dissipation, or other factors, so no machine can be an ideal machine.


A measure of how much work put into a machine is changed into useful work output?

It's efficiency would be 100%, but it's basically a theoretical ideal, because no matter how much it is minimized, "machine" automatically means a certain amount of friction, and a certain amount of heat generated, even if they are tiny amounts. That prevents 100% efficiency.


If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?

If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).


What is the efficiency of a machine that miraculously converts all the input energy to useful output energy?

The efficiency of such a machine would be 100%, as all the input energy is converted to useful output energy without any losses. This would be an ideal scenario but is not practically achievable due to factors such as friction, heat dissipation, and other forms of energy loss in real-world machines.


Can a machine be more than 100 percent efficient?

100% efficiency would mean that the machine is able to transform energy from one form into another without any loss of energy from the system in the process. For it to have greater than 100% efficiency, it would have to somehow generate additional energy, not contained in the system, in the process, and this is not possible.


If the efficiency of a machine increases what would occur?

If the efficiency of a machine increases, it would require less input to produce the same output, leading to reduced energy consumption, cost savings, and improved performance. Ultimately, this would result in higher productivity and overall effectiveness of the machine.


Is it possible to design a machine that has an efficiency that is greater than 100 percent yes or no?

No. That would violate Conservation of Energy, so it follows that it isn't possible.


In what machine does work input equals work output?

In practical there is no machine which have efficiency 100%,i.e. output work = input work. But an ideal machine have efficiency of 100%, for an example a Carnot's heat engine. The efficiency of this engine is 100% but it is an ideal situation. As an expression of efficiency it is equal to W/Q, where W is work done by the system and Q is heat put into the system. For efficiency =1 ,i.e.100% if and only if W=Q and vice verse.