There is no such thing as an unstoppable force, or an immovable object. Things like nuclear explosions or planets come close, but not close enough.
AnswerThis is known as the 'Irresistible Force Paradox'.
An irresistible force would have to possess (effectively) infinite energy, which is impossible for a finite universe. Also, for a universe in which irresistible forces are possible, immovable objects would not be (therein lies the crux of the paradox). For the sake of the question, we would also have to assume that both are indestructible, subverting the obvious answer that both would be destroyed.
This is related to the 'Omniscience Paradox' - the question "can God create a stone that is too heavy for even Him to lift?"
If an irresistible force meets an immovable object, the immovable object moves and the irresistible force stops. This is one rational answer for an irrational question.
This scenario poses a paradox because it assumes the existence of two contradictory concepts - an immovable object and an unstoppable force. In reality, both cannot coexist, so the outcome is undefined or illogical. Physics does not provide a definitive answer to this hypothetical situation.
This is an exercise in logic. If an unstoppable force exists, then an immovable object cannot exist, because it would be able to be moved by the unstoppable force, and vice versa. Sideways Logic The unstoppable force does not "stop", the immovable object does not move : the unstoppable force ricochets off the immovable object!
It's a paradox known as the "unstoppable force paradox" and it challenges the idea that both an unstoppable force and an immovable object can exist simultaneously. It's a thought experiment that raises questions about the fundamental laws of physics and what would happen in such a scenario.
This scenario is considered a paradox, as an irresistible force cannot exist alongside an immovable object in classical physics. It raises questions about the nature of the concept of an immovable object and an irresistible force.
Let's see: An immovable object has infinite inertia, so it has an infinite mass. An unstoppable force is probably infinite as well. Were we in the finite domain, we could useNewton's second law that says: F=ma, or a = F/m.Therefore the body would be accelerated by the quotient of the force and mass.Here we go into the speculative domain - if the infinities are equivalent,I will divide them and get a constant, therefore there is a constant acceleration and the unstoppable force wins (the object moves).The part where I cheated was when dividing infinities, which is not a well-defined mathematical operation.I believe we could say this: an unstoppable force would win over an equally immovable object.
If the unstoppable object was smaller, then it would pierce a hole through the immovable object, not moving the object, and not stopping.
This scenario poses a paradox because it assumes the existence of two contradictory concepts - an immovable object and an unstoppable force. In reality, both cannot coexist, so the outcome is undefined or illogical. Physics does not provide a definitive answer to this hypothetical situation.
This is an exercise in logic. If an unstoppable force exists, then an immovable object cannot exist, because it would be able to be moved by the unstoppable force, and vice versa. Sideways Logic The unstoppable force does not "stop", the immovable object does not move : the unstoppable force ricochets off the immovable object!
Broken Toy - 2009 Unstoppable Force Immovable Object 2-8 was released on: USA: 6 February 2013
Basic paradoxes are examples of questions that cannot be answered. For example, what happens when an immovable object meets an unstoppable force? Since neither an immovable object nor an unstoppable force exist in reality, there is no way to determine what would happen in this theoretical situation. Source: personal experience
It's a paradox known as the "unstoppable force paradox" and it challenges the idea that both an unstoppable force and an immovable object can exist simultaneously. It's a thought experiment that raises questions about the fundamental laws of physics and what would happen in such a scenario.
Obviously you can't have both an unstoppable force and an immovable object. If the force moves the object, then the object isn't unmovable. If the force doesn't move it, then the force isn't unstoppable.
Since these are extremes that cannot be acheived due to the laws of physics, it cannot happen. However, If it could happen, I suspect a paradox would occur.
Since these are extremes that cannot be acheived due to the laws of physics, it cannot happen. However, If it could happen, I suspect a paradox would occur.
This scenario is considered a paradox, as an irresistible force cannot exist alongside an immovable object in classical physics. It raises questions about the nature of the concept of an immovable object and an irresistible force.
Let's see: An immovable object has infinite inertia, so it has an infinite mass. An unstoppable force is probably infinite as well. Were we in the finite domain, we could useNewton's second law that says: F=ma, or a = F/m.Therefore the body would be accelerated by the quotient of the force and mass.Here we go into the speculative domain - if the infinities are equivalent,I will divide them and get a constant, therefore there is a constant acceleration and the unstoppable force wins (the object moves).The part where I cheated was when dividing infinities, which is not a well-defined mathematical operation.I believe we could say this: an unstoppable force would win over an equally immovable object.
there is no difference lol thats just like asking what happens when an unstoppable force hits an immovable object - IT TURNS AROUND just because its unstoppable doesnt mean its immovable THE MORE YOU KNOW /god