Impulse is based on two factors: force and time. I = F / t. If there is zero force, the impulse will be zero. If time is zero, the calculation would be undefined.
First of all the grammar in this question is atrocious. Second, this question can not be answered because there are missing 'given' facts. The ball is 7.2, in what type of measurement? It could be inches, feet, in metric and so on. The same goes for the ball rolling at 1.2, 1.2 what? Once again, inches, feet, in metric and so on. So the answer is 0 because there is not enough information to make a determination.
In the scenario, impulse is conserved if the total impulse before an interaction is equal to the total impulse after the interaction.
The formula for impulse, which is the change in momentum of an object, is Impulse = force x time. It is not the same as Impulse x time.
That is called "impulse".
Well I tell u like this velocity,v equalls accelaration * time. When v is 0 then accelaration,a and time becomes zero. When a is zero then force is zero then work is zero then Energy is zero then impulse and presrure is zero and when Energy is zero Heat is zero then heat capacity is zero and Magnetic induction is zero.ok any think more/ When the velocity of an object is zero, then the object has no motion at all. (But only according to the observer who says that its velocity is zero. If another observer happens to ride through the first observer's laboratory in a bus and make some measurements on the way, he would say that the object ... and the first observer ... have large and equal velocities.)
Yes, it is possible for the impulse of force to be zero even if the force is not zero. This can happen if the force is applied for such a short period of time that the area under the force-time graph, which represents impulse, is zero.
Zero - until it is imparted an impulse by a player.
Impulse is the change in momentum. Therefore Impulse is only equal to momentum if the initial momentum was equal to zero. Its the same phenomenon as position and displacement. Impulse= final momentum-initial momentum= mv - mv_0= Force * Time Where m is the mass and v is the velocity.
Yes. A non-zero force may not be sufficient to alter the velocity - for example if it is smaller that the limiting friction. No change in velocity implies no change in momentum and so impulse = 0.
impulse is impulse
yes moving objects have impulse
Impulse = mv Impulse = Fmv
I bought the hat on impulse. It was just an impulse.
it is neuron impulse
First of all the grammar in this question is atrocious. Second, this question can not be answered because there are missing 'given' facts. The ball is 7.2, in what type of measurement? It could be inches, feet, in metric and so on. The same goes for the ball rolling at 1.2, 1.2 what? Once again, inches, feet, in metric and so on. So the answer is 0 because there is not enough information to make a determination.
In the scenario, impulse is conserved if the total impulse before an interaction is equal to the total impulse after the interaction.
Impulse refers to both force and time....... Impulse=(the change in Force)*(time) OR Impulse=the change in Momentum