Is this true The absence of a shared language caused division in the Muslim community?

Answer 1

It is false that the absence of a shared language caused divisions in the Muslim community. This problem does divide India though, and causes many communication problems with their many languages.

Answer 2

Assuming that we are talking about early Islamic Civilization (600-850 C.E.), the answer is uneqivocally FALSE.

However, the issue with this question is one based on tense. The Islamic Community has existed for 1400 years and as time has gone by, language has increasingly become a marked division between Muslims around the world who do have difficulty communicating. Prior to the rise of the Türkic Sultanates (like the Seljuq Empire) and the Persian Empires (like the Saffarid Empire) in the 1000s C.E., the first Islamic Empires like the Rashidun, Umayyad, Abbassid, Aghlabid, and Fatimid Caliphates had a united Arabic language. So until this point, language was NOT a division. Tribalism, ethnic differences, and religious differences (both between Muslims and between Muslims and Non-Muslims) had much greater effect in causing division than did language prior to the rise of the Türkic Sultanates and the Persian Empires.