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Hebrew has a specific word, betulah, for a virgin, and a more general word, `almah, for a young woman. Matthew 1:22-23 used the Septuagint translation of alma in Isaiah 7:14 as "virgin."
There are two times the word 'Immanuel' is mentioned in the King James translation of The Bible:-
Isa 7:14 So, the Lord Himself shall give you a sign. Behold, the virgin will conceive and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call His name Immanuel.
Isa 8:8 And he shall pass through Judah. He shall overflow and go over; he shall reach to the neck. And the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of your land, O Immanuel.
However, the word 'Immanuel' means 'God with us', and is translated as such in reference to Jesus in Matthew 1:23:-
Mat 1:23 "Behold, the virgin shall conceive in her womb, and will bear a son. And they will call His name Emmanuel," which being interpreted is, God with us. [King James Bible]
Mat 1:23 "Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son. They shall call his name Immanuel;" which is, being interpreted, "God with us." [WEB Bible]
It is the adjunct EL that means "of God", therefore the word Immanuel, Lemuel, Samuel, Gabriel, all means that that person named is 'of god.' Jesus was never called Immanuel therefore this prophecy does not apply to Jesus. Besides the Alma (young girl) mentioned in this prophecy was living at the time the prophecy was made.
What else can I help you with?
Can you explain the significance of the prophecy in Isaiah 7:14 and how it is fulfilled in the New Testament?
The prophecy in Isaiah 7:14 foretells the birth of a child who will be called Immanuel, meaning "God with us." In the New Testament, this prophecy is fulfilled with the birth of Jesus Christ, who is believed by Christians to be the fulfillment of this prophecy as the Son of God who came to dwell among humanity.
whose words were fulfilled when the birth of Jesus took place?
A:There is no prophecy of the birth of Jesus anywhere in the Bible. However, Matthew's Gospel says that Isaiah 7:14 was a prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin, and we should consider that. Matthew relies on the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures. Although not actually mentioning Jesus or Mary, the Septuagint does say: "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."However, what the prophet Isaiah actually wrote in the original Hebrew was, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." The 'prophecy' was for a young woman about whom Isaiah was speaking and about a child to be called Immanuel. The young woman in question did have a child just a few verses later in Isaiah's book, and Isaiah never wrote of a virgin or of the virgin Mary.No one can satisfactorily explain why a reference to a child called Immanuel should be a prophecy of Jesus some six centuries later, but the words of Isaiah are now widely considered to be a prophecy fulfilled by the birth of Jesus. This is now so central to Christian belief that hymns even use 'Immanuel' as an alternative name for Jesus.
What is the significance of the first prophecy of Jesus in the Old Testament?
The first prophecy of Jesus in the Old Testament is significant because it foretells the coming of a savior who will be born of a virgin and will be called Immanuel, meaning "God with us." This prophecy, found in the book of Isaiah, is seen as a promise of hope and salvation for humanity, as it foreshadows the birth of Jesus Christ, who Christians believe to be the fulfillment of this prophecy.
How did Jesus fullfill Isaiah prophecy of setting the captives free?
how did Jesus fulfill Isaiah prophecy of setting the captives free
Is Peter in Isaiah's prophecy?
In spite of Christian tradition, the Book of Isaiah does not mention Jesus or any of his disciples. So, Peter is not in Isaiah's prophecy.
Who prophesied to Mary?
The prophet, Isaiah (see Isaiah 7:14).B: The Holy Spirit revealed to Isaiah that his prophecy pointed forward to Jesus (John 12:41). It was not until after the miraculous virginal conception and birth of Jesus more than six hundred years later that it became entirely clear that the near fulfillment of Isaiah's prophecy was a type, the archetype of which is Jesus the Messiah (Matthew 1:22-23). While Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz signified temporal salvation for Judah, Jesus Christ, the literal "Immanuel", embodied eternal salvation for true Israel. The prophecy in Isaiah chapter 7 was a predictiveprophecy fulfilled in Isaiah chapter 8. Looking back at the Old Testament through the lens of the New, we see Isaiah's prophecy also as a typological prophecy fulfilled in Jesus. Atheists point to this prophecy in order to show proof that the Bible is not credible when Isaiah makes clear this prophecy was fulfilled when Isaiah "went to the prophetess, and she conceived and gave birth to a son" named Maher-Shalah-Hash-Baz (8:3).
Is the name Jesus connected to the name Emmanuel linearly?
----------------------- The only biblical connection between Jesus and the name Emmanuel (or Immanuel) is in Matthew's attempt to show that Isaiah 7:14 was a prophecy that a virgin would conceive, and that virgin would be Mary, mother of Jesus. This is not what Isaiah actually intended to say, because the original Hebrew for Isaiah 7:14 only said that "the young woman" would have a child and would call his name Immanuel, and the young woman did have a child just a few verses later in the Book of Isaiah.
How did Jesus fulfill Isaiah's prophesy?
A:The prophet Isaiah never mentioned Jesus, either by name or in any way by which Jesus could be identified. He did not write any prophecy that Jesus fulfilled or could fulfill. There is a well known passage in most Christian Bibles at Isaiah 7:14 that is a supposed prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin, but Isaiah never wrote that passage, at least not as we generally read it. The passage, used by the author of Matthew, comes from the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures, which says, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." What the prophet Isaiah wrote was, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." The young woman in question did have a child just a few verses later in Isaiah's book.
Is Isaiah 11 talking about Jesus?
Isaiah 11 is a passage in the Bible that is often interpreted as a prophecy about Jesus, the Messiah.
What is a double fulfillment?
Sometimes a prophecy has multiple moments of fullfillment. For example Isaiah 7:14: "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son and will call him Immanuel.". In the time of the prophet some time after Isaiah spoke this there was a baby born with this name. That was the first fullfillment. But later, in Matthew 1:23 this text is mentioned again but Matthew applies it to Jesus. With the birth of Jesus this prophecy was again fullfilled.
What did Jesus' growing number of followers became known as?
Christians fulfilling the Prophecy of Isaiah that the Lord will give his servants a new nameto be called by.
What Old Testament prophecy was fulfilled at John's baptism of Jesus?
I believe it was Isaiah 42:1 and Isaiah 40:3-5
