Why did Jesus use mud and rub it on the blind man's eyes?

Answer 1

It was a way of anointing the man's eyes which were then healed miraculously.

AnswerMark 6:5-6 states that, in his own country, Jesus could do no mighty work except heal a few sick people. He marvelled at their unbelief. Read literally, this means that Jesus was powerless to perform miracles unless the people believed. Because of this need for people seeking cures to have faith, it was customary in ancient times for holy men to use spit and other tricks when curing afflictions.

Two early miracles are keys to establishing the authenticity of all miraculous cures said to have been performed by Jesus. They are the cure of a deaf and dumb man (7:32) and of blind man (8:23). In these, Jesus had to use spit and even had difficulty in completing one cure successfully. The manner of performing these two cures was so orthodox that Mark is likely to have created the stories simply based on his knowledge of anecdotes about holy men in general. The only practical alternative is that Jesus had learnt magic tricks from others.

In later passages, Mark becomes more confident of Jesus' powers and not only is spit no longer needed, but the miracles become progressively more awe-inspiring, a trend reinforced in the later gospels.

Answer 2

Jesus used mud to heal the blind man as a symbolic act, demonstrating his divine power and authority over physical ailments. This action also served as a sign of the blind man's faith and willingness to obey Jesus' instructions in order to receive healing.

Answer 3

Another answer from our community: The spittle was not necessary to perform the miracle as Jesus could cure him with a thought - the spittle was to provide men, whom he loves, with a physical sign of his power - a physical sign that mankind needs and loves.

Answer 4

------------------------

The first gospel to be written was Mark's Gospel, and this seems to have introduced Jesus' miracles somewhat tentatively. Two early miracles are the cure of a deaf and dumb man (7:32) and of blind man (8:23). In these, Jesus had to use spit and even had difficulty in completing one cure successfully. It was customary in ancient times for holy men to use spit when curing afflictions, and the manner of performing these two cures was so orthodox that Mark could have created the stories simply based on his knowledge of anecdotes about holy men in general.

Since the strength of Jesus' inherent powers should not have changed over time, all other miraculous cures would be inauthentic if they seem to demonstrate clearly greater miraculous powers than exercised here, but his powers began to exceed those of other holy men, when he began to cure blindness or deafness without the traditional spit, cured third parties who were not even present, and cured unintentionally - for example the woman with the issue of blood.

Answer 5

It was customary in ancient times for holy men to use spit when curing afflictions, perhaps for dramatic effect. In two of the earliest miraculous cures recorded by Mark, the cure of a deaf and dumb man (7:32) and of blind man (8:23), Jesus used spit just as other holy men had, in one case achieving the cure with great difficulty. The manner of performing these two cures was so orthodox that Mark is likely to have created the stories simply based on his knowledge of anecdotes about holy men in general. In the case of later miracles, Mark dispensed with the spit.