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The rich have more disposable income to spend on goods and services, leading to higher consumption levels. They also often have higher standards of living and greater access to luxury goods and experiences. Additionally, societal norms and status symbols can drive the wealthy to consume more as a way to display their social standing.

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What was the differences between poor and rich in 1912?

In 1912, the differences between the poor and the rich were stark. The rich had access to better education, healthcare, and living conditions, while the poor often struggled with low wages, limited access to resources, and poor living conditions. Social divides were prominent, with the wealthy enjoying more opportunities and privileges than the poor.


What falls more heavily on the rich than on the poor?

Taxes tend to fall more heavily on the rich compared to the poor, as the wealthy are typically in higher tax brackets and have more financial resources subject to taxation. Additionally, economic downturns and fluctuations can impact the wealthy more significantly due to their larger investments and assets.


Canadians consume more of this than any other nation- What is it?

Maple syrup. Canada is the world's leading producer of maple syrup, and Canadians consume more of it per capita than any other nation.


Why is the gap between the rich and poor?

Often, the rich have more opportunity than the poor: the rich can afford to go to the best schools, have the best computers and technology, and get the best jobs as a result. Many poor people are born into neighborhoods where the schools are bad, there is little access to technology, and there are few role models to serve as mentors. Meanwhile, in many countries (America among them), the tax code is written to benefit the rich, who know how to use various methods to avoid paying taxes and to keep most of their wealth, which they then pass on to their kids, continuing the same cycle. This is not to say that there is anything wrong with keeping one's wealth or passing it on to one's kids; but America used to have a lot more social mobility, so those who were poor could dream of one day moving up. Sadly, that does not happen as much any more. Studies do show that over the past thirty years, the rich really have gotten much richer, while the poor really have gotten much poorer. Without social mobility, the gap between these two groups will either stay the same or get wider.


Why should people be billionaires?

because it's way more fun than being poor

Related Questions

Why may affluence be worse for the environment than poverty?

The rich consume; the poor do not (consume so much).


What is the difference between rich and the poor?

The rich generally have more economic and political power than the poor.


Does China have more poor or rich people in it?

There are more poor people in China than rich people. There might be as many as 500,000 poor people for every "rich" person. China, with a population of MORE than one billion people {1,000,000,000}, has a very skewed wealth distribution. Most countries have more poor people than rich. The only way rich people are able to become rich is by suppressing the poor.


Why would your society look down poor vs rich relationships?

Your society might look down on poor vs. rich relationships because it is more difficult to appreciate the poor than it is to appreciate the rich. In most societies, it is believed that rich people tend to be more educated and sometimes "better" than poor people.


Is scarcity an issue faced by only poor people and poor nations or does the rich and poor alike face scarcity?

The poor face a scarcity of resources more often than the rich because they have more limited resources (most importantly, money). But everyone's resources are technically limited. The rich have more money than the poor, but if they spend it all or lose it all, they also face scarcity. If there is a scarcity of a product or a natural resource, it will affect both the rich and the poor, but as prices rise for resources high in demand, the rich will have more access to them, until there is no more for anyone: both rich and poor.


Are mesopotamian people poor or rich?

Well, Some mesopotamian's had more power's than the others, but no, no one was richer or more poor than the other's


Why were more of the rich passengers saved than poor people?

because they were more important


Did the poor get richer or poorer during the reign of the tudors?

There are ALWAYS more poor people than rich!


Why did ancient Greek houses have limited furniture?

Because their were poor people and rich people too so the rich people had more furniture than the poor people


Which type of tax falls more heavily on the rich than on the poor?

regressive tax. (:


Why did the rich have more money than the poor in the 16th century?

Because, Otherwise the rich wouldn't have been rich and the poor, with no high standard of comparison due to lack of rich people, would have become middle class. Think about it.


Is everyone poor in India?

Not at all. However, the spread between rich and poor is much more pronounced. In the USA or UK or Canada, there are rich people and poor people but generally the rich are reasonably rich and the poor still usually have a roof over their heads, or, even if homeless, are able not to starve because of a welfare state. However, in India the rich tend to be very very rich, whilst the poor are very very poor - and there are a lot more poor people than in western countries, so, on average, India can be thought of as a poor country although there are many living there who are very rich.