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Yes, the Florida territory was considered a slave territory because it is located south of the latitude 36°30′, which was established as the boundary for slavery in the Missouri Compromise of 1820. This line aimed to limit the expansion of slavery in the western territories; however, Florida was already designated for slavery when it became a U.S. territory in 1822. As a result, plantation agriculture and slavery became integral to Florida's economy and society during that period.

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Related Questions

Who resulted in one free state and one slave state?

The Missouri Compromise of 1820 admitted Missouri as a slave state and Maine as a free state. The Compromise ruled that any territory north of 36 30 latitude would be free and below it would be slave.


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The addition of new states to the union create dispute because the free-slave territory was becoming bigger than the slave territory. The South felt cheated.


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Because Texas should be slave territory (see related questions).


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Because the Louisiana Territory wasn't divided into free or slave states yet.


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When Florida became a state in 1845, it was considered a slave state.


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Americans wanted to gain control of Florida because it was controlled by Spain and slave ships were brought in. Florida was gained when President Monroe asked Andrew Jackson to look into problems the Georgians had with the Seminole Indians. Jackson invaded Florida & overthrew the Spanish government. Spain then agreed to sell Florida to the United States rather than fight


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The Missouri Compromise of 1820 allowed Missouri to enter the Union as a slave state, but prohibited slavery north of the 36°30' parallel in the Louisiana Territory. This line separated free and slave territories in the territory acquired through the Louisiana Purchase.


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Niether


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