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Why did Britain and France adopt the policy of appeasement regarding German aggression in Europe in the 1930s?
Primarily because they were not prepared (militarily or politically) to fight Germany or resist Hitler at the risk of war, until Hitler attacked Poland on September 1, 1939. Although they did not entirely trust Hitler, they hoped that Hitler's aggressions would end after he seized the Sudetenland in October 1938.
What else can I help you with?
World war 2 was caused in part by which of these factors?
Answer this question… European appeasement of German aggression in an effort to avoid conflict
What impact did the appeasement policy have on German aggression?
It encouraged more agression
How did appeasment lead to war?
It really was not appeasement that lead to war it was the deception by Hitler that angered the nations who signed non-aggression pacts with Hitler. They declared war on him when he attacked Poland (who had not signed a non-aggression pact with Hitler). In truth it was not the violation of appeasement non-aggression pacts that started the war it was the violation of the Treaty of Versailles that incensed the French and Brits. They declared war after Hitler went after Poland with a military force he was not supposed to have and for an aggression he was not supposed to carry out.
What did the US do in response to German and Italian aggression in Europe?
They did nothing until Japan bombed Pearl Harbor. Then the US Congress finally allowed FDR to send troops to the European Theater of Operations to help Britain defeat the Nazis. The US troops went to Africa to join the Brits in that effort. The rest is history.
What was great Britain's policy toward Germany that was based on the belief that the satisfaction of reasonable demands would maintain peace in Europe?
The policy of appeasement was Lloyd George's response to not declaring war on Germany.
What was the policy of appeasement in world war 2?
appeasement before world war 2Britain and France was after WWII but Britain and Germany before WWIIAnsweri only know two countries that held an appeasement before war broke out in 1939. these two countries are BRITAIN and GERMANY. i hope that this has helped you with your reasearch.
How did the appeasement policy start World War 2?
It didn't. World War II would have happened even if appeasement hadn't been offered by Britain and France because Hitler wanted to dominate Europe.
What did Germany do as an act of aggression in world war 2?
Germany committed many acts of aggression in WW2, mainly in invading and occupying most of the free countries of Europe, and indiscriminately bombing Britain.
The plan to meet Hitler's demands in Europe was known as?
Appeasement
What followed policy of appeasement?
The policy of appeasement, primarily associated with Britain and France's concessions to Nazi Germany in the 1930s, ultimately led to World War II. As Adolf Hitler continued to expand German territory and violate treaties without facing significant opposition, it emboldened him and increased tensions in Europe. The failure of appeasement was starkly evident when Germany invaded Poland in September 1939, prompting Britain and France to declare war on Germany, marking the beginning of the conflict. This approach is now widely criticized as it allowed totalitarian regimes to gain strength and destabilize Europe.
Why did Europe take a stance of appeasement against Hitler?
Hitlers has taken almost all of Europe.
Did japan's continued aggression in Europe lead to the attack on the pearl harbor?
Japan had no aggression in europe, only in the far east..............
