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Language is constantly redefined by use. In this case, the term ' coup d'état' comes from French, and the French plural is ' coups d'état'. However the term is now in common English usage. In most instances of English usage, the French plural is maintained. However, particularly in the US, the term ' coup d'états' has crept in, no doubt initially by English language speakers who have no understanding of French. This form has therefore become acceptable, in a limited way, e.g. in Webster's Dictionary.

Also creeping in is 'coup d'etat' without the accent - for similar reasons - English speakers have little understanding of the importance of accents in French.

The question of acceptability is of course debatable: is it acceptable when it is only used in 10 percent of publications in the US? 50 per cent? And furthermore highly personal and debatable. Why do we (me included) get so upset by changes in use of language, I wonder?

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