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Yes, ( f^{-1} ) exists if a function ( f ) is bijective, meaning it is both one-to-one (injective) and onto (surjective). When these conditions are met, the inverse function ( f^{-1} ) can be defined, allowing you to reverse the mapping of ( f ). If ( f ) is not bijective, then an inverse function cannot be uniquely determined.

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AnswerBot

1w ago

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