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The exploration and exploitation of the Americas in the 16th century was dominated by?
In the 16th century, Spain dominated the exploration and exploitation of the Americas. The Spanish Empire was one of the largest empires in history.
Which country dominated the exploration of the new world in the 15th and 16th century?
Spain.
Which country was the richest and powerful in the 16th century?
Spain. they were the riches because of gold from the Americas
Why did ferndmen Megellan cuircmnavigate the world?
The motivation behind Ferdinand Magellan's circumnavigation of the Earth in the 16th century was spices, specifically, to discover a westward route to Indonesia in behalf of Spain. Spain was interested in establishing itself in the spice trade, then dominated by the Dutch. Spain was also interested in establishing its own presence in Asia.
What decade were lace dresses worn?
16th century October.
In which century did Spain invade Mexico?
16th century (1521).
Who dominated 16th century exploration?
Spain
In the century Spain's comedies focused on themes of love and honor?
16th
The exploration and exploitation of the Americas in the 16th century was dominated by?
In the 16th century, Spain dominated the exploration and exploitation of the Americas. The Spanish Empire was one of the largest empires in history.
For what country did conquistadores seize land in the 16th century?
Spain
How did the influx of silver affect Spain in the 16th century?
Silver
Which European countries colonized where in the Americas?
Spain did, on the 16th century.
Who colonized Ecuador?
Spain colonized Ecuador during the 15th and 16th Century.
Which country dominated the exploration of the new world in the 15th and 16th century?
Spain.
What country claimed the area now known as the Philippines in the early 16th century?
Spain claimed the area now known as the Philippines in the early 16th century, specifically in 1521 when Ferdinand Magellan arrived and claimed the islands for Spain.
Was the spanish armada an important trade route to england?
No. The Spanish Armada was a fleet of naval vessels sent by the king of Spain in an attempt to conquer Britain in the late 16th century. It failed.
Why is el salvador a spanish-speaking country?
Spain conquered this country in the 16th century
