Depends on the agreement. If you were just to get half of the selling price, then no. If the written document demanded that the home be sold, then yes.
Yes, but if so, he could get in trouble for violating house arrest.
In Tudor times, a woman was supposed to look after the children, clean the house cook and all the other house work, waiting for their husband to come home, then make sure they're happy.
If you are paying the mortgage, your husband didn't pay for the house. The bank owns the house and you and your husband have an equal share in the equity.
NO!!! Never chase a man to be a father.
The House of Representatives investigates the charges and then decides to either move forward with impeachment or to dismiss the case.
Among the middle classes the ideal Victorian woman was the 'perfect lady'. She was not supposed to work outside the home, except in charities; she was certainly not supposed to earn (though some very modest payments for literary and artistic work were considered in order). A middle-class lady was supposed to run the household efficiently (preferably with the aid of servants) and she was supposed to find fulfilment in looking after her husband and in bringing up the children. She was above all 'the Lady of the House'. (Yes, I know this sounds quaint and even funny). By the 1870s or perhaps earlier it was considered most desirable that she should be sufficiently educated not to cause embarrassment to her husband or other male relatives. She supposed to avoid involvement in politics and to agree with her husband. The Lady of the House was supposed to asexual and certainly NOT supposed to enjoy sex; and as for having an O, that was just too shocking for words ... :) Obviously, this is a simplified picture.
The House of representatives
House of representatives
by the house of representatives....
husband is having an affair and giving her money. Can I make him move out of the house?
yes indeed
Yes. The husband would be the sole owner of the property and could leave it to his wife in his will.