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It's complicated.

When people say that Hitler was an Anti-Semite, they are primarily using that term to refer to Jew-hatred. While Hitler did consider Arabs to be subhuman, he considered them a notch above Jews and other European minorities. Also, since Arabs were not present in Europe at that time, there was no reason to push for their extermination. Additionally, many Arab leaders, especially Haj Amin al-Husseini were rabid Anti-Semites as well. Arabs had become enticed by Nazism because it complemented their fight against the British and French and because many Arabs were able to read Mein Kampf and pretend they were the Master Race who had been defrauded by the Jews.

On this account, Hitler helped to coordinate plans and ideas for Jewish slaughter with these Arab leaders and accepted them as temporary allies against the Jews, who were, in his view, the much more pressing "threat". If Hitler had been successful, there is no reason to believe that Hitler would not have invaded the Arab World. In that scenario, Arabs would likely have been treated like the Slavs were, as second-class, but permitted citizens who walked a razor's edge between joining with minorities like Jews and Gypsies and living acceptable lives.

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Q: Was Hitler aiming only to kill Jewish people or were Arabs on his list too?
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