In layman's terms, bio-availability applies to "how much of this drug, when administered orally, is actually absorbed?" I.e how much of the drug is "available" for the body to utilize?
What makes it a more confusing concept is that bio-availablity of the same drug, at the same dosage, is not the same for every person. (Although you can at least hope they are similar, which enables drugs to have standardized dosages). One of the primary (controllable) factors affecting bio-availabilty is diet; some drugs are absorbed best when taken with food, others are absorbed best when taken on an empty stomach. And some drugs' bio-availabilities are very affected by the fat content in recent meals (normally the more fat which is consumed, the less of a drug can be absorbed).
Bioavailability is used to describe the fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation, so we need chemically stable drug in order to increase the chance of drug absorbance and thus increased bioavailability.
cardiovascular drugs
Basically no, due to two reasons:First, the drug is incompletely absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, some of it exits the body unabsorbed along with the feces.Second, the absorbed amount of the drug undergoes first-pass metabolism; where the drug enters the hepatic portal system and is partly metabolized by the liver, thus, the amounts of drug reaching the systemic circulation unchanged is even less.Therefore, the bioavailability of orally administered drugs is always below a 100% and can never be a 100%.Moreover, its not logical for it to be more than 100%, since bioavailability by definition is the fraction of the amount of the drug administered that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged. It can't be more than 100% unless larger amounts of the drug reaches your circulation than the amount you already took orally, which is impossible.While it cannot be more than 100% for a single dose, if the drug is administered more often than the period necessary for complete elimination from the body, total serum concentration may be higher than 100% of the single dose. Such is the case with most antibiotics for example, which are administered at intervals of 4-6-12 hours to achieve and maintain plasma concentrations higher than the single dose. (PS I am not a health professional)
relationship between the first pass effect and bioavailability
A non-parenteral drug is one that is administered orally or by inhalation. Examples would be swallowing a pill or using an inhaler. Parenteral drugs are administered by injection or via transdermal patch (applied directly to the skin).
Most take medications at home and do not have the training nor the equipment to do so. Only drugs designed and intended for administration via a parenteral route should be taken that way. If drugs designed to be taken orally are administered parenterally the "user" could be harmed, and the medication may work very differently than intended. In addition, most drugs are tested as orally administered medications. The way they are absorbed, how they are metabolized, and the dose and time to effect are all designed for oral administration.
It depends on the type of chemotherapy. My son was diagnosed with Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia. His protocol called for several different chemo drugs to be administered intravenously. He also takes two types of chemo drugs in a pill form.
QUININE
Neither sublingual
schedule 1 drugs are illegal.
Marijuana
no they are bad.