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The ratio of colorblindness of men to women anywhere is virtually 1:0.

Colorblindness is a sex-linked disease and you have to know a little Biology to know why men account for almost 100% of the world's colorblind population.

See, at birth, the genes of the mother and father fuse together to produce the offspring. The male sex gene is XY while the female is XX. So if the offspring is male, the offspring receives a Y from its father and an X from its mother (since the mother can only give Xs). And if the offspring is female, the offspring will receive an X from both parents. So the chance of having either a boy or a girl is always 50/50 and it comes down to what the father gives.

Colorblindness is a sex-linked disease, as mentioned earlier, which means its coded on the sex genes. Sex-linked diseases are almost always located on the X chromosome. And to get this gene, you must have 100% of your Xs coded for it.

A female could become colorblind only if she receives an X from both parents that code for the disease. A male could become colorblind if he receives an X from his mother that codes for the disease. So it is a much greater chance for males to become colorblind than females, because every rarely does it happen that a female receives a sex-linked disease.

However, a woman can still receive a gene that codes for the disease. If she receives just one, she is a carrier of the disease and may pass it on to her offspring. If she receives two, she has the disease. If she receives none, she's free of the disease.

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Q: What is the ratio of colorblindness men and women in Pakistan?
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