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Why do some tax laws take effect on the date they are introduced as legislation and not on the day they are signed into law by the President?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
No US federal law takes effect before it is passed by both houses of Congress and signed by the president.
However, the executive branch of the government does have a huge amount of power. The IRS can set many rules and regulations without any law being passed, as long as no law is violated.
Furthermore, Congress can write a law so that it is retroactive, if the Supreme Court lets them get away with it. A law might be passed one year, but specified to apply to previous years as well.
No, that is wrong! Congress is EXPRESSLY FORBIDDEN from passing retro-active law, by the constitution. The executive branch has SPECIFIED and LIMITED power. [Actually, Congress cannot retroactively make something illegal. It can make something retroactively legal. Thus, it can pass tax laws in, say, December that apply to things which happened the previous January.]
The reason that the IRS can make up rules with out law is that they are rules not law. [Note: this is incorrect. IRS rules are interpretations of existing laws passed by Congress. While it may "appear" to make up tax law, the IRS's rulemaking is closer to judicial interpretation of laws, and conforms to the rule-making powers of other federal agencies]
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
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