Because Mexico and Central America were once colonies of Spain.
So many Native Americans in Central America survived the encounter with the Spanish because they withdrew to the inland mountains.
Because they speak spanish and spanish is a close variation of Latin? A reliable source tells me that it's because you touch yourself at night.
because he is not a spanish explorer
because humans
Not always, for example; Spain is not considered hispanic because it is not from central, south, or latin america.
Spanish is the common language in Mexico and South America because the country of Spain colonized this region. The major exception being Brazil, which was Portuguese.
Belize it was settled by the British, it was forsaken by the Spanish because it lacked gold it is a member of the British commonwealth and is protected from Guatemala by British soldiers.
Spanish is the dominant language in South and Central America because Spain, at the height of her power in the 15 and 16th centuries sent its conquestadores to discover 'the new world. Portuguese is spoken in Brazil because that country was colonized by Portugal.
This is because Columbus was Spanish explorer.
None. Spain is in EUROPE and Guadeloupe is in Central America. Just because they both speak spanish, does not mean they are similar.
Depends on what you mean. If you mean South America or Central America (which are also part of the Americas) it's because people from Spain colonized the area. If you mean America as in the United States, it's because it is the native language of many immigrants who live in the USA.