No. Those are two separate issues in law. Ejectment is obsolete in many jurisdictions being replaced with eviction laws and actions to quiet title.
No. Those are two separate issues in law. Ejectment is obsolete in many jurisdictions being replaced with eviction laws and actions to quiet title.
No. Those are two separate issues in law. Ejectment is obsolete in many jurisdictions being replaced with eviction laws and actions to quiet title.
No. Those are two separate issues in law. Ejectment is obsolete in many jurisdictions being replaced with eviction laws and actions to quiet title.
No. Those are two separate issues in law. Ejectment is obsolete in many jurisdictions being replaced with eviction laws and actions to quiet title.
I would say generally, no. Most statutes require "actual" rather than "constructive" possession. You may want to re-submit with your specific state in the question.In California, it turns out, possession may be through your tenant. We just won our case and gained title through adverse possession where our tenant has occupied the property for the past 10 years. Case law establishes that occupancy by a tenant of the "adverse possessor" has the same legal force and effect as the occupancy by the person claiming by adverse possession. Kellogg v. Huffman (1934) 137 Cal. App. 278,284.Congratulations! As I indicated, statutes are state specific. While you are on the "left" coast, I am on the "right" coast where things tend to be interpreted more conservatively. Thank you for the updated response.
Preface: I had to read this question several times. Pardon my obvious confusion. All references are as to the laws of the State of Washington. Adverse possession can only be met by proving each of the following elements (Muench v. Oxley, 90 Wn. 2d. 637, 584 P2d. 939 (1978)): the possession must be open and notorious, actual and uninterrupted, hostile, exclusive, and under a claim made in good faith. The necessary period of possession is 10 years; however, one who possesses under color of title and pays taxes for 7 consecutive years can bring an adverse possession action at the end of the 7 year period (RCW 7.28.070). If one element of the test is missing, the property cannot be claimed by adverse possession. Clearly, if two different people claimed title to a property by adverse possession,and both used the property during the 10 year period, neither one would have had exclusive and uninterrupted possession of the property, thereby failing the second prong of the adverse possession test introduced in Muench v. Oxley. One could also claim that the possession was not open and notorious, as well. In conclusion, neither party would succeed in their adverse possession claim because they would fail to meet each element of the adverse possession test.
here where you go "enabling statutes" is the same thing as "governing statutes" I am a 100% sure with regards Enabling statutes delineate the powers and duties of a certain department.
No, they're not the same thing. Contraindications are basically warnings and will most likely LEAD to adverse reactions.
Yes, the correct form is "Does it have an apostrophe for possession?"
no, if you have something you are in possession of it at this moment but if you had something then you once had possession but you don't anymore.
Because of the numbering system cited, it appears that they are different statutes.
To establish title to real property in Maryland one must prove actual possession of the property for a statutory period of at least 20 years, and the possession must be open (not secret), notorius (open to the world), hostile to the interest of the holder of the paper title holder, exclusive to the adverse possessor and under claim of title, it must be a continuous, unimterrupted, it must be continuous by the same person or may be tacked with more than one persons adverse possession to reach the 20 year period after which one may file a suit to gain paper title and make the title marketable. The entire concept differs from the Roman law under which paper title can not be adversely overthrown. While Britain was under Roman occupation the Roman law obtained- THEN CAME THE SAXONS! When this happened the Saxon ideas prevailed and and squatting or sitting on the land for a period of time became a way to become owner- The Saxons did not deal with the niceties of paper title - they chose to PROTECT POSSESSION. the concept is embedded in the German language where BESITZ is the word for possession...Charles P. Thompson
no its drug paraphenilia for a pipe
The answer is in a certain possession.
In many jurisdictions, possessing lock picking tools with the intent to use them unlawfully is illegal. However, in some places, owning lock picking tools for educational or professional purposes may be permitted. It is important to check the laws in your specific area to determine the legality of owning and using lock picking tools.
No, possession is determined the same way.