To me it sounds unlikely that a bank would give a new mortgage to an estate. How would the bank get its interest paid by a dead person? Did the administrator lie when he/she asked for the mortgage?
The insured can never amend his insurance policy without the consent of his irrevocable beneficiary because this act would lessen or diminish what is due to the irrevocable beneficiary and thus considering that this is a diminution...consent of the IR beneficiary is necessary.
Yes, you can sell a house without spousal consent it their name isn't on the mortgage. If their name is on the mortgage, you will need their consent.
If they signed the mortgage they are responsible for paying it. Generally the holder of a life estate who wants a mortgage on the property must obtain the written consent of the remainders for the mortgage to be valid as against the real estate. The written consent is the same as cosigning the mortgage.If they signed the mortgage they are responsible for paying it. Generally the holder of a life estate who wants a mortgage on the property must obtain the written consent of the remainders for the mortgage to be valid as against the real estate. The written consent is the same as cosigning the mortgage.If they signed the mortgage they are responsible for paying it. Generally the holder of a life estate who wants a mortgage on the property must obtain the written consent of the remainders for the mortgage to be valid as against the real estate. The written consent is the same as cosigning the mortgage.If they signed the mortgage they are responsible for paying it. Generally the holder of a life estate who wants a mortgage on the property must obtain the written consent of the remainders for the mortgage to be valid as against the real estate. The written consent is the same as cosigning the mortgage.
Yes. The policy is controlled by the "owner"of the policy. If the insured person is the owner, then the beneficiary should be written as "irrevocable." An "irrevocable" beneficiary can only be changed with the consent of that beneficiary, regardless of who the policy "owner" is. Hope this helps.
no
I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.
The property is subject to the mortgage. In order to sell a portion free and clear of the mortgage you would need to obtain a partial release from the bank. The partial release must describe the portion you want to sell and must be recorded in the land records.
Some life insurance policies have an "irrevocable" clause, meaning, once you designate a beneficiary, that's the only beneficiary that can be designated. Stated otherwise, the owner of the policy cannot him/herself change the beneficiary without the consent of the beneficiary (hence, the use of the term "irrevocable"). If that consent can be obtained, the insurer will have forms that must be completed with a great degree of formality, in order to effect the change. The insurer will be concerned that all formalities are observed so that when the insured dies, it is not faced with conflicting claims to the proceeds.
Yes, the beneficiary of an inherited IRA (AKA beneficiary IRA) can name a beneficiary to that account. In the past, this was not really allowed so some form may still practice as such.
The second mortgage holder typically needs to approve the first mortgage refinance because they hold a subordinate position to the first mortgage. Refinancing the first mortgage could impact the second mortgage holder's position, so their consent is often required to make changes to the primary loan.
You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.
That is a federal requirement. Retirement benefits always have to be done in conjunction with the spouse.