No...A gift is complete upon delivery. *Yes, the burden of proof would be on the plaintiff as to whether the money was a gift or a loan.
You can't with out a written agreement
It is a written agreement from you stating that the amount written is payable to whomever receives it. It really isn't money, just a way of transfering it.
6 yrs from date money becme payable. this is as per limitation act 1980.
I know of no state that requires a written agreement. If a tenant pays money, and a landlord lets them in, that's an agreement.
This is when that old adage becomes extremely pertinent: Put it in writing. At the time of the purchase you should execute a written agreement with your friend that your initial down payment will be paid over to you out of the proceeds of any future sale BEFORE the proceeds are divided 50/50. The agreement should be executed in triplicate with a copy to each and the extra filed with your attorney, kept in a bank deposit box or even recorded in the land records, if possible, simply as a memorandum of agreement upon the sale of the property.
The beneficial agreement is an agreement (who would have thought?) that means all the members of the agreement (if they bring money to the school) that makes them give some of their money to any of their friends.
If you had a written agreement that they would pay you "X" amount of $$ per specified (time period) then they are still liable to make the payments. You should not give them a refund of the money ... they defaulted on a written promise to pay ... they are out the $$ ... you get to keep the car and the money.
My "rights" are whatever the agreement was between my brother and I when I paid the money. If there is no written agreement, depending on your state law, you may not have any right. You may claim it was a loan. He may claim it was a gift. If it was a loan, the amount may exceed what can be loaned without a written agreement and you are out of luck. You should have asked this question of a local lawyer before the money was paid out.
It all depends on what country you live in and if you are baby sitting for money or for a friend. If it's for money then there's usually a "before midnight" rate and an "after midnight" rate and some agreement as to how the baby sitter will get home.
It could well be, but your friend would have to check the terms of the contract, even if it was a verbal/textual agreement. The money may still have gone towards 'improving a server' (paying for the running costs perhaps) even if the friend was banned, the two are not necessarily related. If part of the payment agreement was that the friend can use the server, then it's certainly a breach of that agreement for him to be forbidden to use it without good reason. If the money has gone to the other person's pockets and is not being used towards the server, then that sounds like a definate fraud.
Depends of what State. If the incident occurs in a "common law" state; that is to say that property of married persons is considered "joint" property, nothing. If a spouse "unknowingly" accesses money from the account of a "spouse", unless there is a written agreement, such as a prenup or separation agreement, there is no crime. By mere virtue of the fact that the spouse COULD access the money, negates any claim the other spouse could make. "Unknowingly" implies without knowledge. It is not possible to access money "unknowingly", thus I take your meaning to be the identity of the account holder was unknown.
Gentleman's Agreement grossed $7,800,000 worldwide.