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I would think that if the person doing the assualting got killed, and he was the cause of the accident (by assaulting the driver, and thus possibly causing the seizure), that there would be no indication of vehicular homicide, unless the driver was already stated that he/she was unable to drive due to seizures.

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Q: Can a person be charged with vehicular homicide if the driver was assaulted had seizure and ran off the road and the person who caused the assault was killed?
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