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Maybe. It depends on the exact circumstances, and the laws of your particular state.

Most states in the U.S. (as well as other common-law countries, such as Canada and the UK) adhere fairly closely to the common-law rules of adverse possession, which is a doctrine allowing a squatter to take title to land if they occupy it continuously for a certain period of time.

To take title under adverse possession, several elements have to be met. They are:

1. Continuous occupation of land

2. In a manner adverse to the ownership interest of the true owner (so, if you're there with the explicit permission of the owner, you can never take title under adverse possession)

3. In a manner which is open and notorious, meaning that a reasonable owner would be put on notice that someone is occupying the land.

4. The land is used in a manner consistent with a true owner - for example, if the land is suited only for agriculture, the adverse possessor should use it for that purpose. Likewise, if the land is only suited for human use for part of the year (perhaps it's in the wilderness and inaccessible in winter), occupation only during the times it is accessible will satisfy the requirement of continuous occupation.

5. All of the above elements were continuously satisfied for a statutorily set period. This varies from state to state, and many states have different time limits depending on the circumstances, but it is generally 7 to 20 years.

Basically, adverse possession is a statute of limitations for continuous trespass - the owner of the land has to remove an adverse possessor from the land within the statutory time limit, or they run the risk of losing title to the property.

You should note that adverse possession does not apply if you have permission to be on the land, even if all the other elements are met, because, in such a case, you aren't an "adverse" possessor. However, if the owner explicitly revokes permission, but does nothing to actually eject you from the land, then you become an adverse possession, and the time period begins to run from that point forward.

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6y ago
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6y ago

Not if they used the property with the permission of the owner.

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Q: Can a person claim a piece of property they have lived on for a long period of time with no rental agreement?
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