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Medicaid recipients can own their homes (and personal property such as furniture, clothing, etc.). However, they will probably have to sell any non-homestead property, especially if it is not producing income.
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∙ 13y ago
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Can a person in Texas own a house and property that can be sold for income receive medicaid and government apartment?
I'm not familiar with Texas Medicaid per se, but the Medicaid rules about assets and income are virtually the same nation-wide.If the house/property are your homestead, it is an "exempt" asset for Medicaid purposes. If it's not homestead property, Medicaid will give you a period of time, e.g., six months, to sell the property at more or less its fair market value) - i.e., giving it to the kids for $10 will likely create a serious problem with your Medicaid eligibility, especially concerning long term care such as a nursing home. You may be allowed additional time to sell if you're showing a "good faith effort" to do so (listing it with a realtor, etc.). Once the property is sold, Medicaid will take the net proceeds into consideration in determining your eligibility.I don't have an answer to your question about a "government apartment."
Why do you have to pay a lien for a medicaid bill when people who don't own property don't have to pay back their medicaid they received?
Medicaid is a "means tested" program - i.e., it is intended to be used only when the patient has no other resources available for care.
Can a ex- husband own a property after ex- wifes death?
Yes. A person has the right to own property. Another person's death has no bearing on whether he can own property.
Can an elderly person in Tennessee own property and qualify for Medicaid?
The question might be asked, "How MUCH property," and, "How much is it worth?" I doubt that you could be a millionaire landowner and make a valid claim for assistance. But under "normal homeowner" circumstances, yes, you do not have to be destitute in order to qualify.
Does a quit claim deed remove the person for life?
Yes. If a person signs a quitclaim deed they transfer their interest in the property to the grantee and no longer own the property.Yes. If a person signs a quitclaim deed they transfer their interest in the property to the grantee and no longer own the property.Yes. If a person signs a quitclaim deed they transfer their interest in the property to the grantee and no longer own the property.Yes. If a person signs a quitclaim deed they transfer their interest in the property to the grantee and no longer own the property.
Does the Deed holder on a home have full ownership even if their name is not on the mortgage?
The grantee in the deed is the owner of the property. A person who does not own the property can agree to sign the mortgage and be responsible for paying for the property. That does not give them an ownership interest.The grantee in the deed is the owner of the property. A person who does not own the property can agree to sign the mortgage and be responsible for paying for the property. That does not give them an ownership interest.The grantee in the deed is the owner of the property. A person who does not own the property can agree to sign the mortgage and be responsible for paying for the property. That does not give them an ownership interest.The grantee in the deed is the owner of the property. A person who does not own the property can agree to sign the mortgage and be responsible for paying for the property. That does not give them an ownership interest.
What identification does the state require for registration to vote?
in the state of Arkansas to vote you must own property or a business and have ID from your county clerk.
If a felony conviction is expunged cant the person still own firearms in state of Arkansas?
No, they cannot.
Can a home be foreclosed on when the mortgage is in a different name from What is on the deed?
Yes, if the person whose name is on the mortgage owned the property at the time they signed the mortgage. If they subsequently transferred the property, it was transferred subject to the mortgage.If the person who signed the mortgage did not own the property at the time, the mortgage is not enforceable.Yes, if the person whose name is on the mortgage owned the property at the time they signed the mortgage. If they subsequently transferred the property, it was transferred subject to the mortgage.If the person who signed the mortgage did not own the property at the time, the mortgage is not enforceable.Yes, if the person whose name is on the mortgage owned the property at the time they signed the mortgage. If they subsequently transferred the property, it was transferred subject to the mortgage.If the person who signed the mortgage did not own the property at the time, the mortgage is not enforceable.Yes, if the person whose name is on the mortgage owned the property at the time they signed the mortgage. If they subsequently transferred the property, it was transferred subject to the mortgage.If the person who signed the mortgage did not own the property at the time, the mortgage is not enforceable.
Does a person own the earth under his property?
Generally, yes.
Can a person build house on heir property without permission?
If a person builds a home on land that they don't own, the home will become the property of the person who owns the land.
If someone finds your keys to your house does that mean they own it?
No. they don't. a person has to have the deeds to property in their name to own it.
