she can sign ONLY if both the their names appear on the document and it is either /or , if NOT then she cannot.
If you sign a prenuptial agreement then you are legally bound by that agreement. What did you agree to?
No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.
No. Both owners must sign the agreement to make it legal and enforceable for both tenant and landlord.
Not unless she is his attorney in fact under a power of attorney.
No. She would need her husband's written consent to make the agreement binding. All the owners of the property must sign.
If she agreed to sign it, she still has to. The ex husband's heirs can enforce the agreement on behalf of his estate.
Oprah Winfrey Janet Jackson Elizabeth Taylor Pamela Anderson
"In sickness and in health, for richer or poorer" Legally a husband and wife share all assets and liabilities unless they sign a legal agreement otherwise (such as a Prenup)
This depends on whether you have a power of attorney over your husband, and to what extent the power of attorney holds. If you are just doing the finances, then you may not have the right to sign the notice of termination tenancy. Besides, I don't understand why you want to sign a termination of tenancy on yourself since you are the one owns the property. What you're saying is that you are your husband's landlord.
Generally no, only the seller must sign unless there is some sort of agreement set forth in the deed. In that case the buyer must sign in order for the agreement to be enforceable.Generally no, only the seller must sign unless there is some sort of agreement set forth in the deed. In that case the buyer must sign in order for the agreement to be enforceable.Generally no, only the seller must sign unless there is some sort of agreement set forth in the deed. In that case the buyer must sign in order for the agreement to be enforceable.Generally no, only the seller must sign unless there is some sort of agreement set forth in the deed. In that case the buyer must sign in order for the agreement to be enforceable.
We don't just sign any black and white that comes our way...What agreement?
sign a trade agreement with the u.s apex...