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After WW2, Germany was divided into several occupation zones, there was a French one, a British one, a US one and a USSR one. Berlin was also cut into two halves. (But the wall was built much later, in August 61)

The Western zone (and especially Western Berlin, which was located in the USSR occupation zone) received much help from the Western powers since it was considered as a showcase of Western culture.

So yes, you can say there has been a policy of appeasement, unlike after WW1 and the infamous "Traité de Versailles" which led Germany to economic disaster. (This treaty was France's will, not Britain's)

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Q: Did Britain and France adopt a policy of appeasement toward Germany after France was invaded and divided and what happened?
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