California, Florida, and NY
No, the League of Nations took control of Germany's oversea colonies
That was one of the reasons for Germany's loss of WW 2.
After war 1 Germany had to give land and that land they were banned from.The war of world war2 started by Germany in attack of Poland. Britain and France declared war on Germany after Hitler had refused to abort his invasion of Poland.
After which war,the first world war or the second?,and whether or not you speak of either war more than two nations received German land. 1st world war=checkoslovakia,Poland,France receive German land (not to mention the distribution of the German colonies in Africa and the pacific)2nd world war=Poland gets more land,as does the soviet union,German land is occupied by the biritsh,french,Americans and soviets until the dissolution of the soviet union in 1991
France did not lose any land to Germany in World War 1, but Germany had handed over land (Alsace-Lorraine) to France after the treaty in June 1919 which they were not happy about as they had alwaus been enemies of the french. well that's just world war 1
It didn't gain any land. It did lose a lot of land, though.
Lose
Yes.
Germany
World War II, during the holocaust.
Russia was not an ally of Germany in World War 1.
1918
Yes.
If you are talking during the first world war then the only people who lost land were France and Russia I think and definetly Serbia which was conquered by austri-Hungary However post world war Germany lost land due to the treaty of versaille as well as Austria-Hungary
== == Russia and Germany were never allies during World War I. They were on opposite sides from the beginning.
25 June 1940