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The reason why they are not a cross section is because there was a large percentage of people who had no political power. The men in Congress were the people with the wealth, education, and power. America was founded on the idea of a republic, meaning it is based on a government of elected representatives drawn from "the best" classes. In the 18th century most men didn't have the right to vote. Of the 4 million Americans in 1787 only 160,000 voted in the state ratifying conventions. This is 4% of the white males and three fourths of the white males did not vote because they couldn't meet the property qualifications. The founders also believed that legislators should insulate themselves from public opinion and in this way they could "discern the true interest of their country."

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11y ago
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7y ago

Not really. There are few to no actually poor members of Congress, for example, and no children. And the percentage of any given subset of people (except wealthy white males) in Congress is almost certainly lower than the percentage in the population as a whole. This is not in and of itself a horrible thing (I'd be perfectly fine with there being NO meth addicts, violent felons, or people with an IQ below 70 in Congress, despite all those being present in the country's Demographics), but it does mean that it's not correct to say that Congress is a strictly representative cross-section of the American people.

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Q: Do the members of Congress reflect a cross-section of The American people?
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