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These translations use such words as "a god," "divine" or "godlike" because the Greek word θεός (the·osʹ) is a singular predicate noun occurring before the verb and is not preceded by the definite article. This is an anarthrous the·osʹ. The God with whom the Word, or Logos, was originally is designated here by the Greek expression ὁ θεός, that is, the·osʹ preceded by the definite article ho. This is an articular the·osʹ. Careful translators recognize that the articular construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb points to a quality about someone. Therefore, John's statement that the Word or Logos was "a god" or "divine" or "godlike" does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a certain quality about the Word, or Logos, but it does not identify him as one and the same as God himself.

Here is an excerpt from an explanation given that shows the king james version was not translating the word the-os correctly.

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8y ago

John 1:1: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

There are two potential issues in this verse: 1) whether the Greek word Logos is correctly translated as 'Word', and 2) whether the Greek text says 'the Word was God' is a correct translation from the Greek.


  1. There is no exact English translation for the Greek Logos, a word that has a broader meaning than simply 'Word'. The Greek philosophers had developed the concept of Logos in an attempt to explain the origins of the world, and used what is a a subtle Greek word to describe the concept. Since 'Word' is the nearest practical English translation, the King James Version is correct in its translation. In this gospel, 'Word' is a reference to Jesus.
  2. Arius read this as saying 'the Word was a god', as do modern Jehovah's Witnesses. In Greek, names such as Jesus and God (or, for example, Peter) are normally preceded by the definite article ('the'), but that is not the case here, so in the absence of the article there is a good case that this should be read as 'a god', giving us 'the Word was a god'.

Although the article is sometimes omitted before a name, this is sufficiently unusual to make 'the Word was a god' the preferred translation on purely grammatical grounds. However, Jesus was understood to be one with God at least as early as the fourth century, so the KJV translation does reflect the theology of its time.

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Q: Does the King James Version correctly translate John chapter one verse one?
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