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Gravity acts infinitely from a mathematical point of view, but there are some practical considerations. Gravity acts in proportion to the square of the distance over which it operates. An object that is a given distance from another one has "x" amount of gravimetric force acting on it. Cut the distance in half and there will be four times (22) the force. Double the distance between them and only one fourth (1/22) the force will be felt. At ten times farther apart, 1/102 or 1/100th the force will be felt. The changes are exponential, and it won't be long before there is almost nothing acting on two objects separated by a huge distance. Picture a universe with absolutely nothing in it. Nothing at all. Now put two Bowling balls in the empty universe, and put them in a hundred light years apart. Each would know the other was there, each would feel the other one, but the force pulling them together would be understood only in terms of a mathematical operation. How long would it be before any detectable movement could be observed?

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Q: Does the gravitational force act infinitely over distance?
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Why universe is expanding despite the gravitational forces acting between galaxies?

Gravity's strength is proportional to the distance between two objects in accordance with the "inverse law formula". For every unit distance you move away from a body with gravitational attraction, the strength decreases by a factor of 1/4th. With sufficient force (like in a rocket) you can over-power the gravitational pull and reach a distance where gravity has an infinitely small effect on you. The universe is simply expanding with great enough force that it is able to escape the force of gravity. There is speculation that this may have something to do with the presence of dark matter/energy in the universe, but this is still highly debated.


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If your question rephrased is 'What force does gravity give?' then the answer would be a Gravitational Force. In depth, a Gravitational force is a pulling force which, when opposing other forces, is usually over 55% dominant.


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Mathematically no, but the strength of the strong nuclear force decreases exponentially with distance, whereas gravitational and electromagnetic force each decrease by the square of distance between two applicable objects. Therefore at large enough distances, the strong nuclear force is much much weaker than the other two and can safely be treated as being non-applicable.


Do inclined planes help you use less force over a shorter distance?

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A force moving something over a distance?

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