This is a question that is not agreed upon in the English-speaking community. It is used, but some people think incorrectly. Some dictionaries list it as an obsolete form, replaced by "connote." However, other dictionaries list it as a regular entry, and many people use it. So the debate is whether usage trumps tradition, as with many other words. In any case, the word is alive and well, and used often, whether or not it is used incorrectly.
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The ultimate authority on English usage is the Oxford English Dictionary ("OED"), and in the USA another popular authority is Webster's. Neither has an entry for "*connotate" but both have an entry for "connote":
The incorrect form "*connotate" probably derives from back-formation from the noun "connotation."
the word science belong to Greek language.
Is runtime a language?
The word "nunal" is in Tagalog or Filipino language (national language of the Philippines). In English language it's equivalent word is "mole".
The word "TYPHOON" comes from the Chinese language and from the Chinese word "Tai-fhong" which means a strong wind.
Modernness.
This word does not exist in the English language!
no.
The word babecue does not exist in the English language.
It is pleth that means many. The word derives from the Greek language and the word plethora exist as is in the language.
The word "diagably" does not exist in the English language.
The modern word coral is derived from the Greek language word korrallion.
'choie' does not exist as a word in English language.
Negative. Themary does not exist in the English language. Perhaps you misspelled it?
There is no such language as "Jewish" and no such word as "musial". You are probably thinking about the Yiddish language or the Hebrew language, but the word "musial" doesn't exist in either one.
The word "litatute" does not exist in the English language
This word doesn't exist in spanish
As far as I know, that word does not exist in the English language.