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How did Jesus become a Nazarene?

Updated: 10/23/2022
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The earliest New Testament gospel to be written was Mark's Gospel, which (in the original Greek language) only refers to Jesus as a Nazarene and never mentions Nazareth as his home town. These references are typically translated into English as 'Jesus of Nazareth', but this does not reflect the original manuscripts. We do not know why Mark refers to Jesus in this way, but it may be that Jesus was associated with the sect known as the Nazarenes.

Matthew's Gospel was apparently written in the 80s of the first century, and was substantially based on Mark's Gospel. Its author chose to identify Jesus with Nazareth, so that Matthew 2:23 says, "And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene." There is no known Old Testament reference to which the author could have been referring and his 'prophets' is more likely to be a reference to Mark's Gospel. In any case, this is an explanation why the young family settled in Nazareth, not why Jesus was called a Nazarene.

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Matthew 2:23

(23) And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene.

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Q: How did Jesus become a Nazarene?
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When the Bible calls Jesus a Nazarene is it referring to his home town or a sect he belonged to?

The simplest explanation is that Jesus was called a Nazarene because he grew up in Nazareth.Matthew's Gospel explains (Matthew 2:23) that after the flight to Egypt, the young family did not return to their former home in Bethlehem but instead turned aside and travelled to Galilee, where they settled in Nazareth, thereby fulfilling a prophecy that Jesus be called a Nazarene: "And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene."Scholars have long noted that there is no prophecy anywhere in the Old Testament that could associate Jesus with being called a Nazarene. With further research on the history of the gospels, we now know that Matthew was largely based on Mark's Gospel. Mark, in the original Greek, does not refer to 'Jesus of Nazareth' (as he is described in the later gospels) , but frequently refers to him as a 'Nazarene' (Ναζαρηνοῦ) - although most English translations change this to 'of Nazareth' in line with the other gospels.Mark does not describe Nazareth as the home town of Jesus, but Mark 1:9 does mention Jesus as starting his baptismal journey from Nazareth of Galilee, although this reference to Nazareth of Galilee reads awkwardly and could arguably be an insertion. On the other hand, Acts 24:5 refers to Paul as a leader of a sect called 'Nazarenes', so presumably there was a Jewish sect of that name. Reading this gospel in the absence of the later gospels and Christian tradition that says Jesus grew up in Nazareth, it is open to us to believe that the term Nazarene was a reference to a cult of which Jesus was a member.When the author of Matthew wrote of prophets having called Jesus a Nazarene, his source was Mark's Gospel and his intention was to explain why Joseph and Mary had to take Jesus to Nazareth ("that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene"). Matthew links this description of Jesus as a Nazarene with the town of Nazareth and thereafter uses the term 'Jesus of Nazareth'. In this gospel, 'Nazarene' means that Jesus had lived in Nazareth.


Why was Jesus called the Nazarene?

The simplest explanation is that Jesus was called a Nazarene because he came from Nazareth.Matthew's Gospel explains (Matthew 2:23) that after the flight to Egypt, the young family did not return to their former home in Bethlehem but instead turned aside and travelled to Galilee, where they settled in Nazareth, thereby fulfilling a prophecy that Jesus be called a Nazarene:"And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene."Scholars have long noted that there is no prophecy anywhere in the Old Testament that could associate Jesus with being called a Nazarene. With further research on the history of the gospels, we now know that Matthew was largely based on Mark's Gospel. Mark, in the original Greek, does not refer to 'Jesus of Nazareth' (as he is described in the later gospels) , but frequently refers to him as a 'Nazarene' (Ναζαρηνοῦ - although most English translations change this to 'of Nazareth' in line with the other gospels). So, when the author of Matthew wrote of prophets having called Jesus a Nazarene, his source was Mark's Gospel.


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What is the meaning epansion of INRI Jesus?

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